HESI LPN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions
1. Matt is a 36-year-old male. In the past year, he has noticed that his limbs sometimes move on their own, and he has also started having trouble remembering things and doing simple calculations. Matt’s father and grandfather were also known to have similar problems during their adulthood. Matt is most likely suffering from:
- A. Phenylketonuria (PKU).
- B. Cystic fibrosis.
- C. Turner syndrome.
- D. Huntington’s disease (HD).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Matt is exhibiting symptoms typical of Huntington’s disease (HD), a hereditary condition characterized by involuntary movements, cognitive impairment, and behavioral changes. The fact that Matt's father and grandfather had similar issues supports the genetic nature of the disease. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder that affects amino acid metabolism, not presenting with the symptoms described. Cystic fibrosis primarily affects the respiratory and digestive systems, not causing the neurological symptoms described. Turner syndrome is a genetic condition affecting females and is not associated with the symptoms described in the case of Matt.
2. What term is used to describe each member of a pair of genes?
- A. allele
- B. zygote
- C. autosome
- D. node
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'allele.' An allele refers to one of two or more versions of a gene located at the same position on a chromosome. In genetics, alleles are responsible for variations in inherited traits. Choice B, 'zygote,' is incorrect as a zygote is a fertilized egg cell formed by the fusion of two gametes. Choice C, 'autosome,' is incorrect as autosomes are non-sex chromosomes that determine an individual's genetic traits excluding sex-linked characteristics. Choice D, 'node,' is incorrect as it does not relate to the concept of genes or genetic inheritance.
3. Which of the following statements is true of sickle-cell anemia?
- A. It is typically managed with treatments such as pain relief medications.
- B. It is caused by a mutation in the beta-globin gene.
- C. It leads to the obstruction of small blood vessels and decreased oxygen delivery.
- D. It is more prevalent in individuals of African, Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, and Indian descent.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sickle-cell anemia results from a mutation in the beta-globin gene, causing red blood cells to become sickle-shaped. These misshapen cells can obstruct small blood vessels, leading to reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sickle-cell anemia is typically managed with treatments such as pain relief medications, hydration, and in severe cases, blood transfusions. It is caused by a specific mutation in the beta-globin gene, not by the inability to metabolize phenylalanine. Additionally, sickle-cell anemia is more prevalent in individuals of African, Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, and Indian descent, not exclusive to any specific gender.
4. Why is a client with gestational diabetes being scheduled for an amniocentesis when the fetus has an estimated weight of eight pounds (3629 grams) at 36 weeks gestation? What information is the amniocentesis seeking to obtain?
- A. Presence of a neural tube defect.
- B. Chromosomal abnormalities.
- C. Gender of the fetus.
- D. Fetal lung maturity.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An amniocentesis in this scenario is most likely being performed to assess fetal lung maturity. This is necessary when considering early delivery due to macrosomia (large fetal size), which is a common concern in gestational diabetes. Evaluating fetal lung maturity is crucial to determine if the fetus's lungs are developed enough to support breathing independently outside the womb. The presence of a neural tube defect and chromosomal abnormalities are not typically assessed through amniocentesis in this situation, and determining the gender of the fetus is not the primary purpose of the procedure here.
5. A nurse on an antepartum unit is reviewing the medical records for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8%
- B. A client who has preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL
- C. A client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and a sodium level of 110 mEq/L
- D. A client who has placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A sodium level of 110 mEq/L is critically low and can indicate severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, requiring immediate intervention.
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