HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Test Bank
1. Four clients at full term present to the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should a nurse assess first?
- A. Multipara with contractions occurring every three minutes
- B. Multipara scheduled for non-stress test and biophysical profile
- C. Primipara with vaginal show and leaking membranes
- D. Primipara with burning on urination and urinary frequency
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A primipara with vaginal show and leaking membranes requires immediate assessment as she may be in active labor or at risk of infection. The vaginal show and leaking membranes suggest potential rupture of membranes and the start of labor. Assessing her first ensures prompt management and monitoring. The other options, while important, do not indicate immediate or emergent needs. Contractions every three minutes in a multipara can be managed with ongoing monitoring; non-stress tests and biophysical profiles can be scheduled and are not acute needs. Burning on urination and urinary frequency in a primipara may indicate a urinary tract infection, which is important but not as urgent as assessing for active labor or rupture of membranes.
2. According to a study in 2013 by van Gameren-Oosterom, individuals with Down syndrome:
- A. are unlikely to die from cardiovascular problems by middle age.
- B. have no specific characteristic features.
- C. show deficits in cognitive development.
- D. are likely to have only 46 chromosomes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. According to a study in 2013 by van Gameren-Oosterom, individuals with Down syndrome often exhibit deficits in cognitive development. This is a common characteristic of Down syndrome, along with other health challenges. Choice A is incorrect because individuals with Down syndrome are at a higher risk of cardiovascular problems, contrary to being unlikely to die from them. Choice B is incorrect as Down syndrome is associated with specific characteristic features such as distinctive facial characteristics, making the statement that they have no specific features incorrect. Choice D is incorrect as individuals with Down syndrome have an extra copy of chromosome 21, resulting in a total of 47 chromosomes, not 46.
3. A client is preparing to administer methylergonovine 0.2 mg orally to a client who is 2 hr postpartum and has a boggy uterus. For which of the following assessment findings should the nurse withhold the medication?
- A. Blood pressure 142/92 mm Hg
- B. Urine output 100 mL in 1 hr
- C. Pulse 58/min
- D. Respiratory rate 14/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Methylergonovine can increase blood pressure, so it should be withheld if the client has hypertension. A blood pressure reading of 142/92 mm Hg indicates hypertension and is a contraindication for administering methylergonovine. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and not contraindications for administering this medication. Urine output, pulse rate, and respiratory rate are not factors that determine the appropriateness of administering methylergonovine in this situation.
4. When assessing a woman in the first stage of labor, which clinical finding will alert the nurse that uterine contractions are effective?
- A. Dilation of the cervix.
- B. Descent of the fetus to –2 station.
- C. Rupture of the amniotic membranes.
- D. Increase in bloody show.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the first stage of labor, effective uterine contractions lead to cervical dilation. Dilation of the cervix is a key indicator that uterine contractions are progressing labor. Descent of the fetus to -2 station (Choice B) is related to the fetal position in the pelvis and not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness. Rupture of the amniotic membranes (Choice C) signifies the rupture of the fluid-filled sac surrounding the fetus and does not directly reflect uterine contraction effectiveness. An increase in bloody show (Choice D) can be a sign of impending labor, but it is not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness.
5. Which information regarding the care of antepartum women with cardiac conditions is most important for the nurse to understand?
- A. Stress on the heart is greatest in the first trimester and the last 2 weeks before labor.
- B. Women with class II cardiac disease should avoid heavy exertion and any activity that causes even minor symptoms.
- C. Women with class III cardiac disease should get 8 to 10 hours of sleep every day and limit housework, shopping, and exercise.
- D. Women with class I cardiac disease need bed rest through most of the pregnancy and face the possibility of hospitalization near term.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Class II cardiac disease is symptomatic with ordinary activity. Women in this category need to avoid heavy exertion and limit regular activities as symptoms dictate. Stress is greatest between weeks 28 and 32 of gestation, when hemodynamic changes reach their maximum. Class III cardiac disease is symptomatic with less-than-ordinary activity. These women need bed rest most of the day and face the possibility of hospitalization near term. Class I cardiac disease is asymptomatic at normal levels of activity. These women can perform limited normal activities with discretion, although they still need a good amount of sleep.
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