HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. What is the typical sex chromosome pattern for males?
- A. XX
- B. XYY
- C. XY
- D. XXY
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: XY. In males, the typical sex chromosome pattern consists of one X chromosome and one Y chromosome. Choice A (XX) is the sex chromosome pattern for females. Choice B (XYY) is a chromosomal disorder where males have an extra Y chromosome. Choice D (XXY) is the sex chromosome pattern associated with Klinefelter syndrome, a condition where males have an extra X chromosome.
2. The nurse has received a report regarding a client in labor. The woman’s last vaginal examination was recorded as 3 cm, 30%, and –2. What is the nurse’s interpretation of this assessment?
- A. Cervix is effaced 3 cm and dilated 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
- B. Cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
- C. Cervix is effaced 3 cm and dilated 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.
- D. Cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct interpretation of the assessment provided is that the cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. In the given assessment, the measurements are ordered as dilation, effacement, and station. Choice A is incorrect as it wrongly places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice C is incorrect because it places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice D is also incorrect as it incorrectly states that the presenting part is below the ischial spines, even though it correctly mentions the dilation and effacement of the cervix.
3. What should be the primary focus of nursing care in the transitional phase of labor for a client who anticipates an unmedicated delivery?
- A. Assessing the strength of uterine contractions
- B. Re-evaluating the need for medication
- C. Reminding her to push 3 times with each contraction
- D. Assisting her to maintain control
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the transitional phase of labor, which is the most intense phase, the primary focus of nursing care for a client who anticipates an unmedicated delivery should be assisting her to maintain control. This is essential to help her manage the intense pain and anxiety associated with this phase without the use of medication. Assessing the strength of uterine contractions (Choice A) is important but not the primary focus during the transitional phase. Re-evaluating the need for medication (Choice B) is not applicable as the client anticipates an unmedicated delivery. Reminding her to push 3 times with each contraction (Choice C) is more related to the pushing stage of labor and not the transitional phase.
4. Examination reveals that the laboring client's cervix is dilated to 2 centimeters, 70% effaced with the presenting part at -2 station. The client tells the nurse, 'I need my epidural now, this hurts.' The nurse's response to the client is based on which information?
- A. The client will need to be catheterized before the epidural can be administered.
- B. Administering an epidural at this point would slow down the labor process.
- C. The client should be dilated to at least 8 centimeters before receiving an epidural.
- D. The baby needs to be at a zero station before an epidural can be administered.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering an epidural too early in labor, especially at 2 cm dilation, can slow down the progress of labor. It is usually recommended to wait until labor is more established. Choice A is incorrect because catheterization is not a prerequisite for epidural administration. Choice C is incorrect as waiting until 8 cm dilation is not a standard requirement for epidural administration. Choice D is incorrect because the baby's station being at zero is not a strict criterion for epidural administration.
5. What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia?
- A. Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.
- B. Risk for altered gas exchange.
- C. Risk for deficient fluid volume, related to increased sodium retention secondary to the administration of magnesium sulfate.
- D. Risk for increased cardiac output, related to the use of antihypertensive drugs.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia is 'Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.' Severe preeclampsia poses a significant risk of injury to both the mother and the fetus due to complications such as seizures, stroke, and placental abruption. 'Risk for altered gas exchange' is not the priority diagnosis as pulmonary edema is more common in severe preeclampsia. 'Risk for deficient fluid volume' is incorrect as sodium retention in severe preeclampsia often leads to fluid overload. 'Risk for increased cardiac output' is also incorrect as antihypertensive drugs are used to reduce cardiac output in this condition.
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