a nurse is preparing to administer methylergonovine 02 mg orally to a client who is 2 hr postpartum and has a boggy uterus for which of the following
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Maternity HESI Practice Questions

1. A client is preparing to administer methylergonovine 0.2 mg orally to a client who is 2 hr postpartum and has a boggy uterus. For which of the following assessment findings should the nurse withhold the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Methylergonovine can increase blood pressure, so it should be withheld if the client has hypertension. A blood pressure reading of 142/92 mm Hg indicates hypertension and is a contraindication for administering methylergonovine. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and not contraindications for administering this medication. Urine output, pulse rate, and respiratory rate are not factors that determine the appropriateness of administering methylergonovine in this situation.

2. Which neonatal complications are associated with hypertension in the mother?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neonatal complications associated with maternal hypertension are primarily due to placental insufficiency. The correct answer is A, which includes Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR) and prematurity. These complications arise from inadequate blood flow to the fetus, leading to growth restriction and premature birth. Choices B, seizures, and cerebral hemorrhage are more commonly maternal complications rather than neonatal ones. Choice C, hepatic or renal dysfunction, pertains to maternal complications of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, not neonatal issues. Choice D, placental abruption, and Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) are conditions linked to maternal morbidity and mortality, not neonatal complications.

3. A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is assessing four clients. Which of the following clients is a candidate for an induction of labor with misoprostol?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Misoprostol can be used for induction in clients with gestational diabetes mellitus. Choice A, a client with active genital herpes, is not a candidate for misoprostol induction due to the risk of viral shedding and transmission. Choice C, a client with a previous uterine incision, may be at risk for uterine rupture with misoprostol use. Choice D, a client with placenta previa, is not an appropriate candidate for misoprostol induction due to the risk of increased bleeding associated with the condition.

4. Is a low sperm count or lack of sperm the most common infertility problem in men?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A low sperm count or lack of sperm is indeed one of the most common causes of infertility in men. Factors such as hormonal imbalances, genetic issues, reproductive anatomy problems, and lifestyle factors can also contribute to male infertility. Choice B is incorrect because a low sperm count is a prevalent issue among men facing infertility, making it a common problem. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the prevalence of low sperm count as a cause of infertility in men.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a preterm newborn who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following finding should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a preterm newborn at 32 weeks of gestation, healthcare providers should expect minimal arm recoil. This finding is common in preterm infants due to lower muscle tone. Choice B, a popliteal angle of less than 90°, is incorrect for this age group. Creases over the entire sole (Choice C) typically develop at term age, not at 32 weeks of gestation. Sparse lanugo (Choice D) is a normal finding in preterm infants but is not specific to those at 32 weeks of gestation.

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