Nursing Elites

1. When does the fetus typically begin to turn and respond to external stimulation during pregnancy?

• A. During the second or third week
• B. After the first trimester
• C. Sometimes
• D. Never

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The fetus typically begins to respond to external stimulation much later in pregnancy, usually after the first trimester. During the second or third week of pregnancy, the fetus is still in the early stages of development and is not yet capable of turning or responding to external stimuli. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the timeline of fetal development when it comes to responding to external stimulation.

2. A woman who is 38 weeks gestation is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Dizziness while standing
• B. Sinus tachycardia
• C. Lower back pain
• D. Absent patellar reflexes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Absent patellar reflexes. Absent patellar reflexes can indicate magnesium toxicity, a serious condition that requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory depression or cardiac arrest. Dizziness while standing (choice A) is common in pregnancy but does not specifically indicate magnesium toxicity. Sinus tachycardia (choice B) can be a normal response to magnesium sulfate but does not indicate toxicity. Lower back pain (choice C) is common in pregnancy and not specifically associated with magnesium toxicity.

3. A newborn is being assessed following a forceps-assisted birth. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse identify as a complication of the birth method?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Polycythemia
• C. Facial Palsy
• D. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Facial palsy is a known complication of forceps-assisted birth. During forceps delivery, pressure applied to the facial nerve can result in facial palsy. The newborn may present with weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles on one side. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is not directly related to forceps-assisted birth. Polycythemia (Choice B) is a condition characterized by an increased number of red blood cells and is not typically associated with forceps delivery. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (Choice D) is a lung condition that primarily affects premature infants who require mechanical ventilation and prolonged oxygen therapy, not a direct outcome of forceps-assisted birth.

4. Humans begin life as a single cell that divides repeatedly. This cell is known as a(n):

• A. zygote.
• B. gonadotrope.
• C. embryo.
• D. chromaffin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A zygote is the correct answer. It is the initial cell formed when a sperm cell fertilizes an egg cell, marking the beginning of human development. Choice B, gonadotrope, is incorrect as it refers to a type of hormone-secreting cell in the pituitary gland. Choice C, embryo, is incorrect as it is the stage of development after the zygote has implanted into the uterine wall and undergone initial cell divisions. Choice D, chromaffin, is incorrect as it refers to cells found in the adrenal medulla that produce and store catecholamines.

5. A client is receiving an epidural block with an opioid analgesic. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Polyuria
• C. Bilateral crackles
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilateral crackles. Bilateral crackles indicate respiratory complications, which can occur as an adverse effect of an epidural block with opioid analgesics. Hypotension (Choice A) is a common side effect of epidural opioids but is not typically monitored via crackles. Polyuria (Choice B) is excessive urination and is not directly associated with epidural blocks. Hyperglycemia (Choice D) is high blood sugar levels and is not a typical adverse effect of epidural opioids.

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