Nursing Elites

1. Tim, a 27-year-old man, has unusually narrow shoulders, low muscle mass, and has no facial and body hair. His doctor recently prescribed testosterone replacement therapy to him. Tim is most likely suffering from:

• A. Phenylketonuria (PKU).
• B. Cystic fibrosis.
• C. Klinefelter syndrome.
• D. Huntington’s disease (HD).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tim's physical characteristics, such as narrow shoulders, low muscle mass, and lack of facial and body hair, are typical signs of Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic condition where males have an extra X chromosome (XXY). This leads to underdeveloped testes and reduced testosterone production, resulting in features like gynecomastia, sparse facial and body hair, and reduced muscle mass. Testosterone replacement therapy is commonly used to address the hormonal imbalance in individuals with Klinefelter syndrome. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder unrelated to the symptoms described in Tim's case. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic respiratory condition that does not present with the physical characteristics mentioned. Huntington’s disease (HD) is a neurodegenerative disorder primarily affecting motor function and cognition, not physical appearance and muscle mass.

2. Which of the following statements is a characteristic of supermales?

• A. They are somewhat taller than average.
• B. Their facial hair growth is minimal when compared to normal males.
• C. They suffer from gynecomastia.
• D. They are typically impotent.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct characteristic of supermales, individuals with an XYY chromosome pattern, is that they are somewhat taller than average. Choice B is incorrect as supermales do not exhibit minimal facial hair growth compared to normal males. Choice C is incorrect as gynecomastia, the development of male breasts, is not a characteristic of supermales. Choice D is also incorrect as impotence is not a typical characteristic associated with supermales.

3. A client is in the second stage of labor. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. The client expels the placenta
• B. The client experiences gradual dilation of the cervix
• C. The client begins having regular contractions
• D. The client delivers the newborn

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the second stage of labor, the cervix is fully dilated, and the client delivers the newborn. The expulsion of the placenta occurs during the third stage of labor, not the second stage. Regular contractions typically begin in the first stage of labor, not the second. Gradual dilation of the cervix occurs during the first stage of labor, specifically during the active phase.

4. A client is experiencing sore nipples from breastfeeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place a snug dressing on the client’s nipple when not breastfeeding
• B. Ensure the newborn’s mouth is wide open before latching to the breast
• C. Encourage the client to limit the newborn’s feeding to 10 minutes on each breast
• D. Instruct the client to begin the feeding with the nipple that is most tender

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ensuring the newborn's mouth is wide open before latching is crucial for achieving a proper latch, which can help reduce nipple soreness. Placing a snug dressing on the nipple when not breastfeeding (choice A) can lead to further irritation and hinder healing. Encouraging the client to limit the newborn’s feeding to 10 minutes on each breast (choice C) may not be adequate for effective feeding as infants should feed until they are satisfied. Instructing the client to begin feeding with the most tender nipple (choice D) can worsen the soreness as it may not allow the baby to feed effectively.

5. Dizygotic (DZ) twins share _________ percent of their genes.

• A. 100
• B. 75
• C. 50
• D. 25

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dizygotic (DZ) twins share approximately 50% of their genes. This is because dizygotic twins, also known as fraternal twins, originate from two separate fertilized eggs and share similar genetic similarity to regular siblings. Choice A (100%) is incorrect because if twins shared 100% of their genes, they would be identical twins (monozygotic). Choice B (75%) is incorrect as it is not the typical genetic similarity seen in dizygotic twins. Choice D (25%) is incorrect as it represents a significantly lower genetic similarity than what is observed in dizygotic twins.

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