Nursing Elites

1. Once the testes have developed in the embryo, they begin to produce male sex hormones, or _____.

• A. androgens
• B. genotypes
• C. blastocysts
• D. teratogens

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Androgens are male sex hormones, such as testosterone, produced by the testes after they have developed in the embryo. Androgens are responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. Genotypes refer to an individual's genetic makeup, not hormones. Blastocysts are early stage embryos, not male sex hormones. Teratogens are substances that can interfere with fetal development, not male sex hormones produced by the testes.

2. According to a survey by Adhikari and Liu in the year 2013, at birth, women have:

• A. close to 100,000 ova.
• B. around 300,000 to 400,000 ova.
• C. around 100 to 200 ova.
• D. only 500 ova.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Women are born with approximately 300,000 to 400,000 ova, which gradually decrease in number as they age. Choice A ('close to 100,000 ova.') is incorrect as the actual number is much higher. Choice C ('around 100 to 200 ova.') is incorrect as it underestimates the quantity significantly. Choice D ('only 500 ova.') is incorrect as it greatly underestimates the number of ova present at birth.

3. A client who delivered a healthy newborn an hour ago asked the nurse when she can go home. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide the client?

• A. After the baby no longer demonstrates acrocyanosis
• B. After the baby receives the vitamin K injection
• C. When ambulating to avoid causing dizziness
• D. When there is no significant vaginal bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most critical information for the nurse to provide the client is ensuring that there is no significant vaginal bleeding before discharge. This is vital to prevent complications such as postpartum hemorrhage. Options A, B, and C are important aspects of postpartum care, but assessing and managing vaginal bleeding takes precedence due to its potential seriousness.

4. A client at 30 weeks gestation reports that she has not felt the baby move in the last 24 hours. Concerned, she arrives in a panic at the obstetric clinic where she is immediately sent to the hospital. Which assessment warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Fetal Heart rate 60 beats per minute
• B. Ruptured amniotic membrane
• C. Onset of uterine contractions
• D. Leaking amniotic fluid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 60 beats per minute is significantly below the normal range (110-160 bpm) and indicates fetal distress, requiring immediate intervention. This low heart rate can be a sign of fetal compromise or distress, necessitating urgent evaluation and intervention to ensure the well-being of the fetus. Choices B, C, and D do not indicate immediate fetal distress requiring urgent intervention. Ruptured amniotic membrane, onset of uterine contractions, and leaking amniotic fluid are important assessments but do not present an immediate threat to the fetus's life like a severely low fetal heart rate.

5. A prenatal educator is teaching a class about false labor. Which of the following information should the educator include?

• A. Contractions will become more intense with walking
• B. There will be dilation and effacement of the cervix
• C. There will be bloody show
• D. Contractions will become temporarily regular

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. False labor contractions, also known as Braxton Hicks contractions, are typically irregular and do not lead to cervical dilation or effacement. They are often described as sporadic and temporary, becoming temporarily regular. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because false labor contractions do not intensify with activity, do not cause cervical changes like dilation and effacement, and are not associated with the presence of a bloody show.

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