Nursing Elites

1. What causes sickle-cell anemia?

• A. A chromosomal abnormality.
• B. A single segment found only on the Y chromosome.
• C. A recessive gene.
• D. A decrease in estrogen levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disorder caused by inheriting two copies of a recessive gene, one from each parent. The correct answer is C. Choice A is incorrect because sickle-cell anemia is not primarily caused by a chromosomal abnormality. Choice B is incorrect as the condition is not linked to a single segment found only on the Y chromosome. Choice D is unrelated as it mentions a decrease in estrogen levels, which is not a cause of sickle-cell anemia.

2. Which of the following statements is a characteristic of supermales?

• A. They are somewhat taller than average.
• B. Their facial hair growth is minimal when compared to normal males.
• C. They suffer from gynecomastia.
• D. They are typically impotent.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct characteristic of supermales, individuals with an XYY chromosome pattern, is that they are somewhat taller than average. Choice B is incorrect as supermales do not exhibit minimal facial hair growth compared to normal males. Choice C is incorrect as gynecomastia, the development of male breasts, is not a characteristic of supermales. Choice D is also incorrect as impotence is not a typical characteristic associated with supermales.

3. A primigravida at 36 weeks gestation who is RH-negative experienced abdominal trauma in a motor vehicle collision. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Fetal heart rate at 162 beats per minute
• B. Mild contractions every 10 minutes
• C. Trace of protein in the urine
• D. Positive fetal hemoglobin testing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Positive fetal hemoglobin testing' (D). Positive fetal hemoglobin testing (Kleihauer-Betke test) indicates fetal-maternal hemorrhage, which is critical in an RH-negative mother due to the risk of isoimmunization. This condition can lead to sensitization of the mother's immune system against fetal blood cells, potentially causing hemolytic disease of the newborn in subsequent pregnancies. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial for appropriate management and interventions. Choices A, B, and C are not as critical in this scenario. While monitoring fetal heart rate and contractions is important, the detection of fetal-maternal hemorrhage takes precedence due to the serious implications it poses for the current and future pregnancies of an RH-negative mother.

4. According to a survey by Adhikari and Liu in the year 2013, at birth, women have:

• A. close to 100,000 ova.
• B. around 300,000 to 400,000 ova.
• C. around 100 to 200 ova.
• D. only 500 ova.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Women are born with approximately 300,000 to 400,000 ova, which gradually decrease in number as they age. Choice A ('close to 100,000 ova.') is incorrect as the actual number is much higher. Choice C ('around 100 to 200 ova.') is incorrect as it underestimates the quantity significantly. Choice D ('only 500 ova.') is incorrect as it greatly underestimates the number of ova present at birth.

5. Twins that derive from a single zygote that has split into two are called:

• A. monozygotic (MZ) twins.
• B. fraternal twins.
• C. non-identical twins.
• D. dizygotic (DZ) twins.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: monozygotic (MZ) twins. Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, occur when a single zygote splits into two embryos, leading to two genetically identical individuals. Choice B, fraternal twins, are twins that develop from two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells, resulting in non-identical siblings. Choice C, non-identical twins, is not a common term used to describe this type of twinning. Choice D, dizygotic (DZ) twins, refer to twins that develop from two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells, leading to non-identical twins.

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