a 25 year old gravida 3 para 2 client gave birth to a 9 pound 7 ounce boy 4 hours ago after augmentation of labor with oxytocin pitocin she presses he
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Maternity HESI Test Bank

1. A 25-year-old gravida 3, para 2 client gave birth to a 9-pound, 7-ounce boy 4 hours ago after augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin). She presses her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating 'I’m bleeding a lot.' What is the most likely cause of postpartum hemorrhage in this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Uterine atony is the most likely cause of bleeding 4 hours after delivery, especially after delivering a macrosomic infant and augmenting labor with oxytocin. Uterine atony is characterized by the inability of the uterine muscles to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding. The other options, such as retained placental fragments (A), unrepaired vaginal lacerations (B), and puerperal infection (D), are less likely causes of postpartum hemorrhage in this scenario. Retained placental fragments can cause bleeding, but this typically presents earlier than 4 hours postpartum. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations would likely be evident sooner and not typically result in significant bleeding. Puerperal infection is not a common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage unless there are other signs of infection present.

2. Which of the following statements is true of menstruation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement regarding menstruation is that during this time, an unfertilized egg is discharged along with the shedding of the uterine lining. Choice A is incorrect because the endometrium is shed during menstruation. Choice C is incorrect as menstruation does not prevent a female from engaging in sexual activity with her partner. Choice D is incorrect as a fertilized egg does not undergo mitosis during menstruation but rather implants in the uterine lining for further development.

3. Which of the following statements is true of mutations?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Mutations can occur due to environmental influences such as radiation, chemicals, or other external factors, leading to changes in the DNA sequence. Choice A is incorrect because mutations can also occur due to errors in DNA replication, not solely by chance. Choice B is incorrect as mutations affect the DNA sequence itself, not the production of specific cells. Choice D is incorrect because mutations involve changes in the DNA sequence and do not specifically involve the formation of the DNA structure.

4. Rubella, also called German measles, is a viral infection passed from the mother to the fetus that can cause birth defects such as deafness, intellectual disabilities, blindness, and heart disease in the embryo.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection that can lead to severe birth defects when contracted by a mother during pregnancy. Rubella is the correct answer because it is specifically associated with causing birth defects such as deafness, intellectual disabilities, blindness, and heart disease in the embryo. Syphilis (Choice B) can be passed from mother to fetus but does not cause the mentioned birth defects associated with Rubella. Cystic fibrosis (Choice C) and Phenylketonuria (Choice D) are genetic conditions and not infections transmitted from mother to fetus, making them incorrect choices in this context.

5. What is the purpose of amniocentesis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amniocentesis is a diagnostic procedure used to detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus, such as chromosomal disorders like Down syndrome. It is not performed to induce abortion. The primary purpose of amniocentesis is to assess the genetic health of the fetus, not to determine the baby's gender (Choice C). While amniocentesis can provide information about the baby's health and development, it is not primarily used for monitoring fetal growth (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Similar Questions

A 38-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery after a non-reactive result on a non-stress test (NST). The nurse begins a contraction stress test (CST) with an oxytocin infusion. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
A primigravida arrives at the observation unit of the maternity unit because she thinks she is in labor. The nurse applies the external fetal heart monitor and determines that the fetal heart rate is 140 beats per minute and contractions are occurring irregularly every 10 to 15 minutes. Which assessment finding confirms to the nurse that the client is not in labor at this time?
A client in labor requests nonpharmacological pain management. Which of the following nursing actions promotes client comfort?
If an individual receives a recessive gene for eye color from both parents, the:
A client is in the second stage of labor. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses