a 25 year old gravida 3 para 2 client gave birth to a 9 pound 7 ounce boy 4 hours ago after augmentation of labor with oxytocin pitocin she presses he
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Maternity HESI Test Bank

1. A 25-year-old gravida 3, para 2 client gave birth to a 9-pound, 7-ounce boy 4 hours ago after augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin). She presses her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating 'I’m bleeding a lot.' What is the most likely cause of postpartum hemorrhage in this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Uterine atony is the most likely cause of bleeding 4 hours after delivery, especially after delivering a macrosomic infant and augmenting labor with oxytocin. Uterine atony is characterized by the inability of the uterine muscles to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding. The other options, such as retained placental fragments (A), unrepaired vaginal lacerations (B), and puerperal infection (D), are less likely causes of postpartum hemorrhage in this scenario. Retained placental fragments can cause bleeding, but this typically presents earlier than 4 hours postpartum. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations would likely be evident sooner and not typically result in significant bleeding. Puerperal infection is not a common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage unless there are other signs of infection present.

2. Which of the following most accurately describes the function of genes?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'They regulate the development of traits.' Genes play a crucial role in regulating the development of traits by encoding proteins that control various bodily functions and characteristics. This process involves gene expression and the production of proteins that ultimately determine an individual's traits. Choice B is incorrect because genes do not have a direct role in preventing foreign particles from entering the body; this function is primarily carried out by the immune system. Choice C is incorrect as genes do not specifically work with lutein to influence development; genes operate independently to regulate trait expression. Choice D is incorrect as genes are not responsible for transferring oxygen in the bloodstream; this function is carried out by red blood cells and hemoglobin.

3. A woman has experienced iron deficiency anemia during her pregnancy. She had been taking iron for 3 months before the birth. The client gave birth by cesarean 2 days earlier and has been having problems with constipation. After assisting her back to bed from the bathroom, the nurse notes that the woman’s stools are dark (greenish-black). What should the nurse’s initial action be?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should recognize that dark stools are a common side effect in clients who are taking iron replacement therapy. Dark stools are a known, expected result of iron supplementation and are not indicative of a complication unless other symptoms of GI bleeding are present. A guaiac test would be necessary if there were concerns about gastrointestinal bleeding. Recognizing dark stools as a consequence of iron therapy is an essential nursing assessment skill and does not require immediate reporting. Checking the next stool to confirm the observation is unnecessary as the presence of dark stools in this context is already an expected outcome of iron supplementation.

4. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Urine ketones should be anticipated as a laboratory test for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum because it helps assess the severity of dehydration and malnutrition, which are common complications of this condition. Choice B, rapid plasma reagin, is a test for syphilis and is not relevant to hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, prothrombin time, is a measure of blood clotting function and is not typically indicated for hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice D, urine culture, is used to identify bacteria in the urine and is not directly related to assessing dehydration and malnutrition in clients with hyperemesis gravidarum.

5. What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia is 'Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.' Severe preeclampsia poses a significant risk of injury to both the mother and the fetus due to complications such as seizures, stroke, and placental abruption. 'Risk for altered gas exchange' is not the priority diagnosis as pulmonary edema is more common in severe preeclampsia. 'Risk for deficient fluid volume' is incorrect as sodium retention in severe preeclampsia often leads to fluid overload. 'Risk for increased cardiac output' is also incorrect as antihypertensive drugs are used to reduce cardiac output in this condition.

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