Nursing Elites

1. In contrast to placenta previa, what is the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae?

• A. Bleeding.
• B. Intense abdominal pain.
• C. Uterine activity.
• D. Cramping.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intense abdominal pain. Pain is absent with placenta previa but can be agonizing with abruptio placentae. While bleeding may be present in varying degrees for both placental conditions, intense abdominal pain is a distinguishing feature of abruptio placentae. Uterine activity and cramping may be present with both placental conditions, but they are not the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae.

2. A client who is receiving prenatal care is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to conduct?

• A. Group B strep culture
• B. 1-hour glucose tolerance test
• C. Rubella titer
• D. Blood type and Rh

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1-hour glucose tolerance test. At around 24-28 weeks of gestation, a pregnant individual is typically screened for gestational diabetes. The 1-hour glucose tolerance test helps in identifying elevated blood sugar levels during pregnancy. Choice A, Group B strep culture, is not typically performed at the 24-week appointment but later in the third trimester to screen for Group B streptococcus colonization. Choice C, Rubella titer, is usually checked early in pregnancy to determine immunity to rubella. Choice D, Blood type and Rh, is important for determining the client's blood type and Rh status, but it is usually done earlier in pregnancy and not specifically at the 24-week appointment.

3. Which of the following processes happen during mitosis?

• A. Strands of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) break apart.
• B. Adenine combines with its appropriate partner, cytosine.
• C. Sperm and ova cells are created.
• D. Twenty-three chromosomes are created.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct process that happens during mitosis is the breaking apart, replication, and division of DNA strands into two new cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell. Choice B is incorrect because it describes base pairing in DNA, not a process specific to mitosis. Choice C is incorrect as the creation of sperm and ova cells is related to meiosis, not mitosis. Choice D is incorrect because chromosomes are not created during mitosis; they are replicated and divided equally between the daughter cells.

4. Following an amniocentesis, a nurse is caring for a client. The nurse should observe the client for which of the following complications?

• A. Hyperemesis
• B. Proteinuria
• C. Hypoxia
• D. Hemorrhage

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After an amniocentesis, the nurse should monitor the client for potential complications, with hemorrhage being a significant concern due to the invasive nature of the procedure. Hyperemesis (severe vomiting), proteinuria (excessive protein in the urine), and hypoxia (low oxygen levels) are not typically associated with amniocentesis and are less likely to occur compared to hemorrhage, which is a more common complication that requires prompt recognition and intervention.

5. According to a study in 2014 by Skakkebaek et al., who among the following is most likely to have gynecomastia?

• A. Jennifer, a dancer, who has Down syndrome
• B. Frank, a teacher, who is diagnosed with XYY syndrome
• C. Peter, a fashion designer, who has Klinefelter syndrome
• D. Ria, a gym instructor, who is diagnosed with Turner syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome have an extra X chromosome (XXY) and typically have reduced testosterone levels, which can lead to gynecomastia (enlarged breasts). This condition is not usually associated with Down syndrome (choice A), XYY syndrome (choice B), or Turner syndrome (choice D), making them less likely to have gynecomastia.

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