Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes 10 units per liter of oxytocin via IV drip to augment a client's labor because she is experiencing a prolonged active phase. Which finding would cause the nurse to immediately discontinue the oxytocin?

• A. Contraction duration of 100 seconds.
• B. Four contractions in 10 minutes.
• C. Uterus is soft.
• D. Early deceleration of fetal heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A contraction duration of 100 seconds is too long and can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and other complications. This prolonged contraction duration suggests that the uterus is not relaxing adequately between contractions, potentially compromising fetal oxygenation. Choice B, 'Four contractions in 10 minutes,' is a sign of tachysystole, which is concerning but not as immediately critical as the prolonged contraction duration. Choice C, 'Uterus is soft,' is not a reason to discontinue oxytocin; in fact, it is a normal finding. Choice D, 'Early deceleration of fetal heart rate,' while indicating fetal distress, is not a direct result of the oxytocin and may require intervention but not immediate discontinuation of the medication.

2. Rubella, also called German measles, is a viral infection passed from the mother to the fetus that can cause birth defects such as deafness, intellectual disabilities, blindness, and heart disease in the embryo.

• A. Rubella
• B. Syphilis
• C. Cystic fibrosis
• D. Phenylketonuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection that can lead to severe birth defects when contracted by a mother during pregnancy. Rubella is the correct answer because it is specifically associated with causing birth defects such as deafness, intellectual disabilities, blindness, and heart disease in the embryo. Syphilis (Choice B) can be passed from mother to fetus but does not cause the mentioned birth defects associated with Rubella. Cystic fibrosis (Choice C) and Phenylketonuria (Choice D) are genetic conditions and not infections transmitted from mother to fetus, making them incorrect choices in this context.

3. Which of the following statements is true of Down’s syndrome?

• A. Down’s syndrome is usually caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21 in an individual.
• B. The symptoms of Down’s syndrome are similar to those of sickle-cell anemia.
• C. Down’s syndrome is caused by a sexually transmitted infection (STI) during conception.
• D. The probability of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with the age of the parents.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The likelihood of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases as the age of the parents increases, particularly the mother's age. Choice A is incorrect because Down’s syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21, not a defect in the sex chromosomes. Choice B is incorrect as the symptoms of Down’s syndrome and sickle-cell anemia are different. Choice C is also incorrect as Down’s syndrome is not caused by a sexually transmitted infection during conception.

4. A primigravida at 36 weeks gestation who is RH-negative experienced abdominal trauma in a motor vehicle collision. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Fetal heart rate at 162 beats per minute
• B. Mild contractions every 10 minutes
• C. Trace of protein in the urine
• D. Positive fetal hemoglobin testing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Positive fetal hemoglobin testing' (D). Positive fetal hemoglobin testing (Kleihauer-Betke test) indicates fetal-maternal hemorrhage, which is critical in an RH-negative mother due to the risk of isoimmunization. This condition can lead to sensitization of the mother's immune system against fetal blood cells, potentially causing hemolytic disease of the newborn in subsequent pregnancies. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial for appropriate management and interventions. Choices A, B, and C are not as critical in this scenario. While monitoring fetal heart rate and contractions is important, the detection of fetal-maternal hemorrhage takes precedence due to the serious implications it poses for the current and future pregnancies of an RH-negative mother.

5. In the Ballard Gestational Age Assessment Tool, the nurse determines that a 15-month-old infant has a gestational age of 42 weeks. Based on this finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Provide blow-by oxygen
• B. Provide a capillary blood glucose test
• C. Draw arterial blood gases
• D. Apply a pulse oximeter to the foot

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late preterm infants, such as those with a gestational age of 42 weeks, are at higher risk for hypoglycemia due to immature metabolic regulation. Monitoring capillary blood glucose is crucial to detect and manage hypoglycemia promptly. Providing blow-by oxygen (Choice A) is not indicated for an infant at risk for hypoglycemia. Drawing arterial blood gases (Choice C) is not the primary intervention for assessing hypoglycemia. Applying a pulse oximeter to the foot (Choice D) is not directly related to monitoring blood glucose levels in this context.

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