HESI LPN
HESI Maternal Newborn
1. What should be the primary focus of nursing care in the transitional phase of labor for a client who anticipates an unmedicated delivery?
- A. Assessing the strength of uterine contractions
- B. Re-evaluating the need for medication
- C. Reminding her to push 3 times with each contraction
- D. Assisting her to maintain control
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the transitional phase of labor, which is the most intense phase, the primary focus of nursing care for a client who anticipates an unmedicated delivery should be assisting her to maintain control. This is essential to help her manage the intense pain and anxiety associated with this phase without the use of medication. Assessing the strength of uterine contractions (Choice A) is important but not the primary focus during the transitional phase. Re-evaluating the need for medication (Choice B) is not applicable as the client anticipates an unmedicated delivery. Reminding her to push 3 times with each contraction (Choice C) is more related to the pushing stage of labor and not the transitional phase.
2. A newborn is 1 hour old with a respiratory rate of 50/min, a heart rate of 130/min, and an axillary temperature of 36.1°C (97°F). Which of the following actions should be taken?
- A. Give the newborn a warm bath.
- B. Apply a cap to the newborn's head.
- C. Reposition the newborn.
- D. Obtain an oxygen saturation level.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Applying a cap to the newborn's head is the correct action in this scenario. Newborns are at risk of heat loss due to their high surface area to volume ratio, and maintaining their body temperature is crucial to prevent hypothermia. Giving a warm bath can further increase heat loss and is not recommended. Repositioning the newborn may not address the primary concern of temperature regulation. While monitoring oxygen saturation is important, addressing thermal regulation takes precedence in this situation.
3. What is the process in which the double helix of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) duplicates?
- A. Amniocentesis
- B. Mitosis
- C. Meiosis
- D. Mutation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Mitosis is the correct answer because it is the process of cell division in which a cell duplicates its DNA and divides into two identical daughter cells. During mitosis, the DNA is replicated, and each daughter cell receives an identical copy of the genetic material. Amniocentesis is a medical procedure to collect amniotic fluid for prenatal genetic testing and is not related to DNA duplication. Meiosis is a type of cell division that produces gametes with half the genetic material of the parent cell, leading to genetic diversity. Mutation is a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence that can lead to genetic variations but is not the process of DNA duplication.
4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is 14 weeks of gestation. At which of the following locations should the healthcare professional place the Doppler device when assessing the fetal heart rate?
- A. Midline 2 to 3 cm (0.8 to 1.2 in) above the symphysis pubis
- B. Left Upper Abdomen
- C. Two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus
- D. Lateral at the Xiphoid Process
Correct answer: A
Rationale: At 14 weeks of gestation, the uterus is still relatively low in the abdomen. Placing the Doppler midline 2 to 3 cm above the symphysis pubis is appropriate for assessing the fetal heart rate. This location allows for better detection of the fetal heart tones as the uterus is at a lower position during this stage of pregnancy. Placing the Doppler on the left upper abdomen would not be ideal at 14 weeks gestation as the uterus is not yet at that level. Placing it two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus or lateral at the xiphoid process would also not be accurate for locating the fetal heart rate at this stage of gestation.
5. Dizygotic (DZ) twins share _________ percent of their genes.
- A. 100
- B. 75
- C. 50
- D. 25
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dizygotic (DZ) twins share approximately 50% of their genes. This is because dizygotic twins, also known as fraternal twins, originate from two separate fertilized eggs and share similar genetic similarity to regular siblings. Choice A (100%) is incorrect because if twins shared 100% of their genes, they would be identical twins (monozygotic). Choice B (75%) is incorrect as it is not the typical genetic similarity seen in dizygotic twins. Choice D (25%) is incorrect as it represents a significantly lower genetic similarity than what is observed in dizygotic twins.
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