HESI LPN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions
1. The embryo and fetus develop within a protective _______ in the uterus.
- A. amniotic sac
- B. umbilical cord
- C. neural tube
- D. embryonic disk
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, the amniotic sac. The amniotic sac is a fluid-filled structure that surrounds and protects the developing embryo and fetus in the uterus. It provides a cushion against external pressure, allows for movement and growth, and helps maintain a stable environment for the developing fetus. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The umbilical cord connects the fetus to the placenta and serves as a conduit for nutrients and waste; the neural tube is a structure that forms the central nervous system in early embryonic development; and the embryonic disk is a structure that forms during gastrulation, one of the early stages of embryonic development.
2. A client experiencing preterm labor is being taught about terbutaline by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. “The medication could cause me to experience heart palpitations.”
- B. “This medication could cause me to experience blurred vision.”
- C. “This medication could cause me to experience ringing in my ears.”
- D. “This medication could cause me to experience frequent urination.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic agonist used to stop preterm labor. One of its common side effects is heart palpitations due to its action on beta receptors in the heart. Choices B and C are incorrect because blurred vision and ringing in the ears are not common side effects of terbutaline. Choice D is irrelevant to the side effects of terbutaline.
3. A client is receiving oxytocin by continuous IV infusion for labor induction. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Increase the infusion rate every 30 to 60 minutes.
- B. Maintain the client in a supine position.
- C. Titrate the infusion rate by 4 milliunits/min.
- D. Limit IV intake to 4 L per 24 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the infusion rate every 30 to 60 minutes. This approach allows for the careful monitoring and adjustment of oxytocin administration during labor induction. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining the client in a supine position can decrease blood flow to the placenta and compromise fetal oxygenation. Choice C is incorrect as titrating the infusion rate by 4 milliunits/min is not a standard practice for oxytocin administration. Choice D is incorrect as limiting IV intake to 4 L per 24 hours is not specifically related to the administration of oxytocin for labor induction.
4. A nurse on an antepartum unit is reviewing the medical records for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8%
- B. A client who has preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL
- C. A client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and a sodium level of 110 mEq/L
- D. A client who has placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A sodium level of 110 mEq/L is critically low and can indicate severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, requiring immediate intervention.
5. A client at 20 weeks of gestation has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Thick, White Vaginal Discharge
- B. Urinary Frequency
- C. Vulvar Lesions
- D. Malodorous Discharge
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Malodorous discharge is a common symptom of trichomoniasis caused by the Trichomonas vaginalis parasite. It is typically described as frothy, greenish-yellow, and malodorous. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other conditions. Thick, white vaginal discharge is more characteristic of a yeast infection; urinary frequency may be seen in urinary tract infections; and vulvar lesions are commonly seen in herpes simplex virus infections.
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