HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. Which of the following pairs share 100% of their genes?
- A. Biovular twins
- B. Fraternal twins
- C. Dizygotic (DZ) twins
- D. Monozygotic (MZ) twins
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Monozygotic (MZ) twins. Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, share 100% of their genes because they originate from the same fertilized egg that splits into two. Fraternal twins (choice B), also known as dizygotic (DZ) twins (choice C), result from two separate fertilized eggs and share approximately 50% of their genes. Biovular twins (choice A) is not a term used in genetics and does not describe a type of twinning.
2. A client has active genital herpes simplex virus type 2. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Metronidazole
- B. Penicillin
- C. Acyclovir
- D. Gentamicin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Acyclovir is the antiviral medication specifically used to treat herpes simplex virus infections, including genital herpes caused by herpes simplex virus type 2. Metronidazole (Choice A) is an antibiotic used for different types of infections, but not for viral infections like herpes. Penicillin (Choice B) is an antibiotic effective against bacterial infections, not viruses like herpes. Gentamicin (Choice D) is an antibiotic mainly used to treat bacterial infections, not viral infections like herpes.
3. Rh incompatibility occurs when an Rh-negative woman is carrying an Rh-positive fetus.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Sometimes
- D. Never
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Rh incompatibility occurs when an Rh-negative woman is carrying an Rh-positive fetus, not the other way around. Therefore, the statement that an Rh-positive woman is carrying an Rh-negative fetus is incorrect. Rh incompatibility can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn, where maternal antibodies attack the fetal red blood cells. Choice A is incorrect because the statement is false. Choice C is incorrect as Rh incompatibility has a clear cause and effect relationship. Choice D is incorrect as Rh incompatibility can occur, but it depends on the Rh status of the mother and fetus.
4. A client at 34 weeks gestation comes to the birthing center complaining of vaginal bleeding that began one hour ago. The nurse's assessment reveals approximately 30ML of bright red vaginal bleeding, fetal heart rate of 130 - 140 beats per minute, no contractions, and no complaints of pain. What is the most likely cause of this client's bleeding?
- A. Abruptio Placenta
- B. Placenta Previa
- C. Normal bloody show indicating induction of labor
- D. A ruptured blood vessel in the vaginal vault
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Placenta previa, a condition where the placenta covers the cervix, can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. In this scenario, the absence of contractions and pain, along with the presence of significant bright red bleeding, is more indicative of placenta previa rather than abruptio placenta or a ruptured vessel. A normal bloody show typically occurs closer to the onset of labor and is not associated with the amount of bleeding described in the question.
5. A client who delivered a healthy newborn an hour ago asked the nurse when she can go home. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide the client?
- A. After the baby no longer demonstrates acrocyanosis
- B. After the baby receives the vitamin K injection
- C. When ambulating to avoid causing dizziness
- D. When there is no significant vaginal bleeding
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most critical information for the nurse to provide the client is ensuring that there is no significant vaginal bleeding before discharge. This is vital to prevent complications such as postpartum hemorrhage. Options A, B, and C are important aspects of postpartum care, but assessing and managing vaginal bleeding takes precedence due to its potential seriousness.
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