who among the following share 100 of their genes
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Focus on Maternity Exam

1. Which of the following pairs share 100% of their genes?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Monozygotic (MZ) twins. Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, share 100% of their genes because they originate from the same fertilized egg that splits into two. Fraternal twins (choice B), also known as dizygotic (DZ) twins (choice C), result from two separate fertilized eggs and share approximately 50% of their genes. Biovular twins (choice A) is not a term used in genetics and does not describe a type of twinning.

2. Genotypes are solely based on genetic information.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B - FALSE. Genotypes are solely based on genetic information and do not reflect environmental influences. Phenotypes, on the other hand, result from the interaction of genetic and environmental factors. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because genotypes are not influenced by environmental factors, and they are determined by an individual's genetic makeup.

3. Thalidomide was marketed in the 1960s as a treatment for:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thalidomide was initially marketed as a treatment for insomnia and nausea, particularly in pregnant women. However, it was later found to cause severe birth defects, leading to significant consequences. Choice B, infertility and impotence, is incorrect as thalidomide was not marketed for these conditions. Choices C and D, Down syndrome and Turner syndrome, are genetic conditions and not conditions for which thalidomide was intended as a treatment.

4. What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia is 'Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.' Severe preeclampsia poses a significant risk of injury to both the mother and the fetus due to complications such as seizures, stroke, and placental abruption. 'Risk for altered gas exchange' is not the priority diagnosis as pulmonary edema is more common in severe preeclampsia. 'Risk for deficient fluid volume' is incorrect as sodium retention in severe preeclampsia often leads to fluid overload. 'Risk for increased cardiac output' is also incorrect as antihypertensive drugs are used to reduce cardiac output in this condition.

5. A client at 20 weeks of gestation has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Malodorous discharge is a common symptom of trichomoniasis caused by the Trichomonas vaginalis parasite. It is typically described as frothy, greenish-yellow, and malodorous. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other conditions. Thick, white vaginal discharge is more characteristic of a yeast infection; urinary frequency may be seen in urinary tract infections; and vulvar lesions are commonly seen in herpes simplex virus infections.

Similar Questions

A client is receiving oxytocin by continuous IV infusion for labor induction. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
Which of the following statements is true of Down’s syndrome?
Does a blastocyst gain mass only when it receives nourishment from outside?
A client at 38 weeks of gestation has a prescription for intravaginal misoprostol. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
A client is preparing to administer methylergonovine 0.2 mg orally to a client who is 2 hr postpartum and has a boggy uterus. For which of the following assessment findings should the nurse withhold the medication?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses