who among the following share 100 of their genes
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HESI Focus on Maternity Exam

1. Which of the following pairs share 100% of their genes?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Monozygotic (MZ) twins. Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, share 100% of their genes because they originate from the same fertilized egg that splits into two. Fraternal twins (choice B), also known as dizygotic (DZ) twins (choice C), result from two separate fertilized eggs and share approximately 50% of their genes. Biovular twins (choice A) is not a term used in genetics and does not describe a type of twinning.

2. What causes cystic fibrosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder caused by inheriting two copies of a recessive gene, one from each parent. This means that both parents must carry at least one copy of the faulty gene for a child to inherit the condition. Choice A is incorrect because cystic fibrosis is not linked to the sex chromosomes. Choice B is incorrect as cystic fibrosis is not caused by an abnormality in the 21st pair of chromosomes but by a specific gene mutation. Choice D is also incorrect as cystic fibrosis is not related to the Y chromosome, which is specific to males.

3. A client at 26 weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated AFP level during pregnancy can indicate potential fetal anomalies. Further evaluation is necessary to confirm the findings and assess the need for additional interventions. Scheduling a sonogram is the appropriate next step as it can provide more definitive results and help identify any underlying issues. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the elevated AFP level as a false reading without further investigation can lead to missing important information about the baby's health. Choice C is not the best immediate action, as scheduling a sonogram would provide more detailed information than just repeating the AFP test. Choice D is incorrect as discussing intrauterine surgical correction is premature at this stage and not typically indicated based solely on an elevated AFP level.

4. Are sperm much larger than ova?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. Ova, also known as eggs, are actually the largest cells in the human body, while sperm are significantly smaller. This size difference is due to the different functions of the two gametes. Sperm are specialized for motility to reach and fertilize the egg, while ova contain nutrients and cellular machinery needed for fertilization and early embryonic development. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sperm are not larger than ova; they are much smaller in size.

5. A client who is 24 weeks gestation arrives at the clinic reporting swollen hands. On examination, the nurse notes the client has had a rapid weight gain over six weeks. Which action should the nurse implement next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Swollen hands and rapid weight gain could be signs of preeclampsia, so the next step is to check the client's blood pressure. Elevated blood pressure is a key indicator in assessing for preeclampsia in pregnancy. Reviewing the client's previous blood pressures may provide additional context but obtaining the current blood pressure is crucial for immediate assessment. Observing and timing contractions are not relevant in this scenario as the client is not presenting with signs of active labor. Examining for pedal edema is important in assessing for fluid retention, but obtaining the blood pressure takes precedence in this case due to the potential seriousness of preeclampsia.

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