HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. Which of the following pairs share 100% of their genes?
- A. Biovular twins
- B. Fraternal twins
- C. Dizygotic (DZ) twins
- D. Monozygotic (MZ) twins
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Monozygotic (MZ) twins. Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, share 100% of their genes because they originate from the same fertilized egg that splits into two. Fraternal twins (choice B), also known as dizygotic (DZ) twins (choice C), result from two separate fertilized eggs and share approximately 50% of their genes. Biovular twins (choice A) is not a term used in genetics and does not describe a type of twinning.
2. A nurse is developing an educational program about hemolytic diseases in newborns for a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following genetic information should the nurse include in the program as a cause of hemolytic disease?
- A. The mother is Rh positive, and the father is Rh negative
- B. The mother is Rh negative, and the father is Rh positive
- C. The mother and the father are both Rh positive
- D. The mother and the father are both Rh negative
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The mother is Rh negative, and the father is Rh positive.' Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, leading to Rh incompatibility. In this scenario, the mother produces antibodies against the Rh antigen present in the fetus, which can result in hemolysis of the fetal red blood cells. Choices A, C, and D do not describe the Rh incompatibility that leads to hemolytic disease in newborns. Therefore, they are incorrect.
3. _________ is self-propulsion.
- A. Mitosis
- B. Meiosis
- C. Motility
- D. Mutation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Motility.' Motility refers to the ability of cells or organisms to move by themselves, often through the use of specialized structures like flagella or cilia. Mitosis (Choice A) and Meiosis (Choice B) are processes related to cell division and genetic recombination, respectively, not self-propulsion. Mutation (Choice D) refers to changes in the DNA sequence and is not related to self-propulsion.
4. A client in the transition phase of labor reports a pain level of 7 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the client to use effleurage.
- B. Apply counterpressure to the client's sacrum.
- C. Assist the client with patterned-paced breathing.
- D. Teach the client the technique of biofeedback.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During the transition phase of labor, a client may experience intense back pain due to the pressure of the baby descending. Applying counterpressure to the client's sacrum can help alleviate this discomfort. Effleurage is a light stroking massage technique that may not provide adequate relief for intense back pain. Patterned-paced breathing is beneficial for managing contractions but may not directly address back pain. Biofeedback is a technique that helps individuals gain awareness and control of certain physiological functions, but it may not be the most appropriate intervention for acute labor pain.
5. A newborn's head circumference is 12 inches (30.5 cm) and his chest measurement is 13 inches (33 cm). The nurse notes that this infant has no molding, and it was a breech presentation delivered by cesarean section. What action should the nurse take based on this data?
- A. No action needs to be taken, it is normal for an infant born by cesarean section to have a small head circumference.
- B. Notify the pediatrician immediately. These signs support the possibility of hydrocephalus.
- C. Call these findings to the attention of the pediatrician. The head/chest ratio is abnormal.
- D. Record the findings on the chart. They are within normal limits.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Head and chest circumference measurements are within normal limits for a newborn, especially for those delivered by cesarean section, so no immediate action is required beyond documentation.
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