Nursing Elites

1. A client has active genital herpes simplex virus type 2. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Metronidazole
• B. Penicillin
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Gentamicin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir is the antiviral medication specifically used to treat herpes simplex virus infections, including genital herpes caused by herpes simplex virus type 2. Metronidazole (Choice A) is an antibiotic used for different types of infections, but not for viral infections like herpes. Penicillin (Choice B) is an antibiotic effective against bacterial infections, not viruses like herpes. Gentamicin (Choice D) is an antibiotic mainly used to treat bacterial infections, not viral infections like herpes.

2. _________ is self-propulsion.

• A. Mitosis
• B. Meiosis
• C. Motility
• D. Mutation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Motility.' Motility refers to the ability of cells or organisms to move by themselves, often through the use of specialized structures like flagella or cilia. Mitosis (Choice A) and Meiosis (Choice B) are processes related to cell division and genetic recombination, respectively, not self-propulsion. Mutation (Choice D) refers to changes in the DNA sequence and is not related to self-propulsion.

3. What is the central layer of the embryo from which the bones and muscles develop?

• A. neural tube
• B. mesoderm
• C. ectoderm
• D. umbilical cord

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is mesoderm. The mesoderm is the middle layer of the embryo that gives rise to the bones, muscles, and other connective tissues. The neural tube (choice A) develops into the nervous system, not bones and muscles. The ectoderm (choice C) forms the skin and nervous system, not bones and muscles. The umbilical cord (choice D) is a structure that connects the developing fetus to the placenta; it is not a layer of the embryo that gives rise to bones and muscles.

4. What is the primary rationale for thoroughly drying the infant immediately after birth?

• A. Stimulates crying and lung expansion.
• B. Removes maternal blood from the skin surface.
• C. Reduces heat loss from evaporation.
• D. Increases blood supply to the hands and feet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary rationale for thoroughly drying the infant immediately after birth is to reduce heat loss from evaporation. This helps maintain the infant's body temperature and prevent hypothermia. Choice A (Stimulates crying and lung expansion) is incorrect because drying the infant is not primarily done to stimulate crying but rather to prevent heat loss. Choice B (Removes maternal blood from the skin surface) is incorrect as the main reason is to prevent heat loss, not to remove maternal blood. Choice D (Increases blood supply to the hands and feet) is also incorrect as drying the infant is not intended to increase blood supply but rather to regulate body temperature.

5. At 31 weeks gestation, a client with a fundal height measurement of 25 cm is scheduled for a series of ultrasounds to be performed every two weeks. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. Assessment for congenital anomalies
• B. Recalculation of gestational age
• C. Evaluation of fetal growth
• D. Determination of fetal presentation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Evaluation of fetal growth.' A fundal height measurement smaller than expected may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), requiring serial ultrasounds to monitor fetal growth. Assessing for congenital anomalies (choice A) is usually done through detailed anatomy scans earlier in pregnancy. Recalculating gestational age (choice B) is typically unnecessary at this stage unless there are concerns about accuracy. Determining fetal presentation (choice D) is usually done closer to term to plan for the mode of delivery.

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