a nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing sore nipples from breastfeeding which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Maternity HESI Practice Questions

1. A client is experiencing sore nipples from breastfeeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ensuring the newborn's mouth is wide open before latching is crucial for achieving a proper latch, which can help reduce nipple soreness. Placing a snug dressing on the nipple when not breastfeeding (choice A) can lead to further irritation and hinder healing. Encouraging the client to limit the newborn’s feeding to 10 minutes on each breast (choice C) may not be adequate for effective feeding as infants should feed until they are satisfied. Instructing the client to begin feeding with the most tender nipple (choice D) can worsen the soreness as it may not allow the baby to feed effectively.

2. After meiosis, each new cell nucleus contains _____ chromosomes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After meiosis, each resulting cell contains 23 chromosomes. Meiosis is a process that involves two sequential divisions resulting in four daughter cells, each with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. In humans, the parent cell has 46 chromosomes (diploid), and after meiosis, the resulting cells (sperm or ova) have 23 chromosomes (haploid). Choice A (46 chromosomes) is incorrect because this is the number of chromosomes in a human diploid cell before meiosis. Choices B (35 chromosomes) and D (12 chromosomes) are incorrect as they do not represent the correct number of chromosomes after meiosis in human cells.

3. During a prenatal visit, for which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeling quickening typically occurs around 18-20 weeks of gestation, indicating fetal movement. This is an appropriate time to auscultate the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because a molar pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy, and auscultating the fetal heart rate in this case is not applicable. Choice B is incorrect because a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is too early for fetal heart rate auscultation. Choice C is incorrect because a positive urine pregnancy test alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for fetal heart rate auscultation.

4. _____ is a life-threatening disease, characterized by high blood pressure that may afflict women late in the second or early in the third trimester.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Preeclampsia is a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure that typically occurs in the second half of pregnancy. If left untreated, it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby. Rubella (choice A) is a viral infection that can harm the developing fetus but is not directly related to high blood pressure in pregnancy. Syphilis (choice B) is a sexually transmitted infection that can affect pregnancy but does not specifically cause high blood pressure. Phenylketonuria (choice D) is a genetic disorder that affects metabolism and is not associated with high blood pressure in pregnancy.

5. On the first postpartum day, the nurse examines the breasts of a new mother. Which condition is the nurse most likely to find?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: On the first postpartum day, the nurse is most likely to find the breasts filling and secreting colostrum. Colostrum secretion is common as the body prepares for breastfeeding in the initial days after delivery. Choice A is incorrect as breasts are not typically very tender immediately postpartum. Choice B is incorrect as an immediate let-down response is more related to lactation rather than the first postpartum day. Choice C is incorrect as the breasts typically undergo changes, such as filling with colostrum, after delivery.

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