HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Test Bank
1. A woman at 26 weeks of gestation is being assessed to determine whether she is experiencing preterm labor. Which finding indicates that preterm labor is occurring?
- A. Estriol is not found in maternal saliva.
- B. Irregular, mild uterine contractions occur every 12 to 15 minutes.
- C. Fetal fibronectin is present in vaginal secretions.
- D. The cervix is effacing and dilated to 2 cm.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cervical changes such as effacement and dilation to 2 cm are strong indicators of imminent preterm labor. These changes, combined with regular contractions, can signify labor at any gestation. Estriol can be detected in maternal plasma as early as 9 weeks of gestation. Levels of salivary estriol have been linked to preterm birth. Irregular, mild contractions occurring every 12 to 15 minutes without cervical change are generally not concerning. While the presence of fetal fibronectin in vaginal secretions between 24 and 36 weeks of gestation may predict preterm labor, its predictive value is limited (20%-40%). Therefore, cervical changes provide more reliable information regarding the risk of preterm labor.
2. During a prenatal visit, for which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate?
- A. A client who has an ultrasound confirming a molar pregnancy
- B. A client who has a crown-rump length corresponding to 7 weeks gestation
- C. A client who has a positive urine pregnancy test 1 week after missed menses
- D. A client who has felt quickening for the first time
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeling quickening typically occurs around 18-20 weeks of gestation, indicating fetal movement. This is an appropriate time to auscultate the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because a molar pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy, and auscultating the fetal heart rate in this case is not applicable. Choice B is incorrect because a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is too early for fetal heart rate auscultation. Choice C is incorrect because a positive urine pregnancy test alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for fetal heart rate auscultation.
3. A client experiencing preterm labor is being taught about terbutaline by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. “The medication could cause me to experience heart palpitations.”
- B. “This medication could cause me to experience blurred vision.”
- C. “This medication could cause me to experience ringing in my ears.”
- D. “This medication could cause me to experience frequent urination.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic agonist used to stop preterm labor. One of its common side effects is heart palpitations due to its action on beta receptors in the heart. Choices B and C are incorrect because blurred vision and ringing in the ears are not common side effects of terbutaline. Choice D is irrelevant to the side effects of terbutaline.
4. A client at 30 weeks gestation reports that she has not felt the baby move in the last 24 hours. Concerned, she arrives in a panic at the obstetric clinic where she is immediately sent to the hospital. Which assessment warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Fetal Heart rate 60 beats per minute
- B. Ruptured amniotic membrane
- C. Onset of uterine contractions
- D. Leaking amniotic fluid
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 60 beats per minute is significantly below the normal range (110-160 bpm) and indicates fetal distress, requiring immediate intervention. This low heart rate can be a sign of fetal compromise or distress, necessitating urgent evaluation and intervention to ensure the well-being of the fetus. Choices B, C, and D do not indicate immediate fetal distress requiring urgent intervention. Ruptured amniotic membrane, onset of uterine contractions, and leaking amniotic fluid are important assessments but do not present an immediate threat to the fetus's life like a severely low fetal heart rate.
5. A 30-year-old primigravida delivers a nine-pound (4082 gram) infant vaginally after a 30-hour labor. What is the priority nursing action for this client?
- A. Assess the blood pressure for hypertension.
- B. Gently massage fundus every four hours.
- C. Observe for signs of uterine hemorrhage.
- D. Encourage direct contact with the infant.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After a prolonged labor and delivery of a large infant, the client is at an increased risk for uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage, making observation for signs of bleeding a priority. Assessing the blood pressure for hypertension (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as the immediate concern is postpartum hemorrhage. Gently massaging the fundus every four hours (Choice B) is a routine postpartum care activity but is not the priority in this scenario. Encouraging direct contact with the infant (Choice D) is important for bonding but does not address the immediate risk of uterine hemorrhage after delivery.
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