Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements is a characteristic of supermales?

• A. They are somewhat taller than average.
• B. Their facial hair growth is minimal when compared to normal males.
• C. They suffer from gynecomastia.
• D. They are typically impotent.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct characteristic of supermales, individuals with an XYY chromosome pattern, is that they are somewhat taller than average. Choice B is incorrect as supermales do not exhibit minimal facial hair growth compared to normal males. Choice C is incorrect as gynecomastia, the development of male breasts, is not a characteristic of supermales. Choice D is also incorrect as impotence is not a typical characteristic associated with supermales.

2. When do mothers usually feel the first fetal movements during pregnancy?

• A. At 18-20 weeks
• B. During the first month
• C. Rarely
• D. Never

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mothers usually feel the first fetal movements, known as 'quickening,' around the 18th to 20th week of pregnancy. Feeling fetal movements during the first month is unlikely and uncommon. Therefore, option B is incorrect. Options C and D are also incorrect as mothers typically do feel fetal movements during pregnancy, just not during the first month.

3. During a prenatal visit, for which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate?

• A. A client who has an ultrasound confirming a molar pregnancy
• B. A client who has a crown-rump length corresponding to 7 weeks gestation
• C. A client who has a positive urine pregnancy test 1 week after missed menses
• D. A client who has felt quickening for the first time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeling quickening typically occurs around 18-20 weeks of gestation, indicating fetal movement. This is an appropriate time to auscultate the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because a molar pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy, and auscultating the fetal heart rate in this case is not applicable. Choice B is incorrect because a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is too early for fetal heart rate auscultation. Choice C is incorrect because a positive urine pregnancy test alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for fetal heart rate auscultation.

4. Twenty-year-old Jack is extremely tall and has very thick facial hair. Most of his male secondary sex characteristics are also more pronounced than men of his age. In this scenario, Jack is most likely:

• A. an XYY male.
• B. diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome.
• C. an XXY male.
• D. diagnosed with Down syndrome.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: an XYY male. Individuals with XYY syndrome often exhibit increased height and more pronounced secondary male characteristics, such as thick facial hair. Choice B, Klinefelter syndrome (XXY), typically presents with less prominent male secondary sex characteristics due to the presence of an extra X chromosome. Choice C, XXY male, refers to Klinefelter syndrome, which does not align with the description of Jack having more pronounced male secondary sex characteristics. Choice D, Down syndrome, is caused by a trisomy of chromosome 21 and is not associated with the physical characteristics described in the scenario.

5. How many pairs of autosomes does a human zygote contain?

• A. 46
• B. 44
• C. 23
• D. 22

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A human zygote contains 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes, totaling 46 chromosomes. Therefore, the correct answer is 22. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the number of autosomes in a human zygote. Option A (46) represents the total number of chromosomes in a human zygote, not the number of autosomes. Option B (44) is incorrect as it does not account for the correct number of autosomes. Option C (23) is inaccurate since it represents the total number of chromosomes in a human gamete, not the number of autosomes in a zygote.

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