Nursing Elites

1. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Urine Ketones
• B. Rapid plasma reagin
• C. Prothrombin time
• D. Urine culture

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Urine ketones should be anticipated as a laboratory test for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum because it helps assess the severity of dehydration and malnutrition, which are common complications of this condition. Choice B, rapid plasma reagin, is a test for syphilis and is not relevant to hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, prothrombin time, is a measure of blood clotting function and is not typically indicated for hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice D, urine culture, is used to identify bacteria in the urine and is not directly related to assessing dehydration and malnutrition in clients with hyperemesis gravidarum.

2. Matt is a 36-year-old male. In the past year, he has noticed that his limbs sometimes move on their own, and he has also started having trouble remembering things and doing simple calculations. Matt’s father and grandfather were also known to have similar problems during their adulthood. Matt is most likely suffering from:

• A. Phenylketonuria (PKU).
• B. Cystic fibrosis.
• C. Turner syndrome.
• D. Huntington’s disease (HD).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Matt is exhibiting symptoms typical of Huntington’s disease (HD), a hereditary condition characterized by involuntary movements, cognitive impairment, and behavioral changes. The fact that Matt's father and grandfather had similar issues supports the genetic nature of the disease. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder that affects amino acid metabolism, not presenting with the symptoms described. Cystic fibrosis primarily affects the respiratory and digestive systems, not causing the neurological symptoms described. Turner syndrome is a genetic condition affecting females and is not associated with the symptoms described in the case of Matt.

3. A nurse is developing an educational program about hemolytic diseases in newborns for a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following genetic information should the nurse include in the program as a cause of hemolytic disease?

• A. The mother is Rh positive, and the father is Rh negative
• B. The mother is Rh negative, and the father is Rh positive
• C. The mother and the father are both Rh positive
• D. The mother and the father are both Rh negative

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The mother is Rh negative, and the father is Rh positive.' Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, leading to Rh incompatibility. In this scenario, the mother produces antibodies against the Rh antigen present in the fetus, which can result in hemolysis of the fetal red blood cells. Choices A, C, and D do not describe the Rh incompatibility that leads to hemolytic disease in newborns. Therefore, they are incorrect.

4. A 25-year-old gravida 3, para 2 client gave birth to a 9-pound, 7-ounce boy 4 hours ago after augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin). She presses her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating 'I’m bleeding a lot.' What is the most likely cause of postpartum hemorrhage in this client?

• A. Retained placental fragments.
• B. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations.
• C. Uterine atony.
• D. Puerperal infection.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Uterine atony is the most likely cause of bleeding 4 hours after delivery, especially after delivering a macrosomic infant and augmenting labor with oxytocin. Uterine atony is characterized by the inability of the uterine muscles to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding. The other options, such as retained placental fragments (A), unrepaired vaginal lacerations (B), and puerperal infection (D), are less likely causes of postpartum hemorrhage in this scenario. Retained placental fragments can cause bleeding, but this typically presents earlier than 4 hours postpartum. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations would likely be evident sooner and not typically result in significant bleeding. Puerperal infection is not a common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage unless there are other signs of infection present.

5. A newborn with a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute at one minute after birth is demonstrating cyanosis of the hands and feet. What action should a nurse take?

• A. Assess bowel sounds.
• B. Continue to monitor.
• C. Assist with intubation.
• D. Rub the infant's back.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cyanosis of the hands and feet, known as acrocyanosis, is common in newborns shortly after birth and usually resolves on its own. It is not indicative of a need for immediate intervention. Therefore, the appropriate action is to continue monitoring the newborn's condition. Assessing bowel sounds (Choice A) is not relevant to the presenting issue of cyanosis and respiratory rate. Assisting with intubation (Choice C) is an invasive procedure that is not warranted based on the information provided. Rubbing the infant's back (Choice D) is not necessary for acrocyanosis and could potentially disturb the newborn.

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