Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer phytonadione (vitamin K) to a newborn. Which statement made by the parents indicates understanding why the healthcare provider is administering this medication?

• A. Improve insufficient dietary intake
• B. Stimulate the immune system
• C. Help an immature liver
• D. Prevent hemorrhagic disorders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because phytonadione (vitamin K) is administered to newborns to prevent hemorrhagic disease due to their low levels of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. Choice A is incorrect as vitamin K administration is not related to improving dietary intake. Choice B is incorrect as vitamin K doesn't stimulate the immune system. Choice C is incorrect as vitamin K is not given to help an immature liver, but rather to prevent hemorrhagic disorders.

2. A client at 26 weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading.
• B. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results.
• C. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test should be evaluated.
• D. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated AFP level during pregnancy can indicate potential fetal anomalies. Further evaluation is necessary to confirm the findings and assess the need for additional interventions. Scheduling a sonogram is the appropriate next step as it can provide more definitive results and help identify any underlying issues. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the elevated AFP level as a false reading without further investigation can lead to missing important information about the baby's health. Choice C is not the best immediate action, as scheduling a sonogram would provide more detailed information than just repeating the AFP test. Choice D is incorrect as discussing intrauterine surgical correction is premature at this stage and not typically indicated based solely on an elevated AFP level.

3. During a prenatal visit, for which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate?

• A. A client who has an ultrasound confirming a molar pregnancy
• B. A client who has a crown-rump length corresponding to 7 weeks gestation
• C. A client who has a positive urine pregnancy test 1 week after missed menses
• D. A client who has felt quickening for the first time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeling quickening typically occurs around 18-20 weeks of gestation, indicating fetal movement. This is an appropriate time to auscultate the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because a molar pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy, and auscultating the fetal heart rate in this case is not applicable. Choice B is incorrect because a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is too early for fetal heart rate auscultation. Choice C is incorrect because a positive urine pregnancy test alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for fetal heart rate auscultation.

4. A nurse on an antepartum unit is reviewing the medical records for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8%
• B. A client who has preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL
• C. A client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and a sodium level of 110 mEq/L
• D. A client who has placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A sodium level of 110 mEq/L is critically low and can indicate severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, requiring immediate intervention.

5. A woman at 26 weeks of gestation is being assessed to determine whether she is experiencing preterm labor. Which finding indicates that preterm labor is occurring?

• A. Estriol is not found in maternal saliva.
• B. Irregular, mild uterine contractions occur every 12 to 15 minutes.
• C. Fetal fibronectin is present in vaginal secretions.
• D. The cervix is effacing and dilated to 2 cm.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cervical changes such as effacement and dilation to 2 cm are strong indicators of imminent preterm labor. These changes, combined with regular contractions, can signify labor at any gestation. Estriol can be detected in maternal plasma as early as 9 weeks of gestation. Levels of salivary estriol have been linked to preterm birth. Irregular, mild contractions occurring every 12 to 15 minutes without cervical change are generally not concerning. While the presence of fetal fibronectin in vaginal secretions between 24 and 36 weeks of gestation may predict preterm labor, its predictive value is limited (20%-40%). Therefore, cervical changes provide more reliable information regarding the risk of preterm labor.

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