Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer phytonadione (vitamin K) to a newborn. Which statement made by the parents indicates understanding why the healthcare provider is administering this medication?

• A. Improve insufficient dietary intake
• B. Stimulate the immune system
• C. Help an immature liver
• D. Prevent hemorrhagic disorders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because phytonadione (vitamin K) is administered to newborns to prevent hemorrhagic disease due to their low levels of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. Choice A is incorrect as vitamin K administration is not related to improving dietary intake. Choice B is incorrect as vitamin K doesn't stimulate the immune system. Choice C is incorrect as vitamin K is not given to help an immature liver, but rather to prevent hemorrhagic disorders.

2. A mother spontaneously delivers a newborn infant in the taxicab while on the way to the hospital. The emergency room nurse reported the mother has active herpes (HSV II) lesions on the vulva. Which intervention should the nurse implement first when admitting the neonate to the nursery?

• A. Document the newborn's temperature on the flow sheet.
• B. Place the newborn in the isolation area of the nursery.
• C. Obtain a blood specimen for a serum glucose level.
• D. Administer the vitamin K injection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Newborns exposed to active herpes lesions are at high risk for neonatal herpes, which can be severe. Placing the newborn in isolation is crucial as it helps prevent the spread of the virus and allows for close monitoring. Documenting the newborn's temperature, obtaining a blood specimen for a serum glucose level, and administering the vitamin K injection are important interventions but are not the priority when dealing with a potential infectious risk like neonatal herpes.

3. A 38-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery after a non-reactive result on a non-stress test (NST). The nurse begins a contraction stress test (CST) with an oxytocin infusion. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. A pattern of fetal late decelerations.
• B. Fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement.
• C. Absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes.
• D. Spontaneous rupture of membranes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A pattern of fetal late decelerations. Late decelerations during a contraction stress test are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can pose a risk to fetal well-being. Reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is crucial for prompt intervention. Choice B, fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement, is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes, may require further assessment but is not as critical as late decelerations. Choice D, spontaneous rupture of membranes, is important but not the most immediate concern during a contraction stress test.

4. Do dizygotic (DZ) twins run in families?

• A. Yes
• B. No
• C. Rarely
• D. Never

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Yes, dizygotic (DZ) twins can run in families. This is due to genetic factors that influence hyperovulation, where a woman releases multiple eggs during her menstrual cycle. This genetic predisposition can be passed down through generations, increasing the likelihood of having dizygotic twins. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the statement that dizygotic twins run in families is true, as supported by scientific evidence. It is important to note that while the genetic predisposition for dizygotic twins can run in families, it does not guarantee that every generation will have twins, as other factors also play a role in twin pregnancies.

5. During a prenatal visit, for which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate?

• A. A client who has an ultrasound confirming a molar pregnancy
• B. A client who has a crown-rump length corresponding to 7 weeks gestation
• C. A client who has a positive urine pregnancy test 1 week after missed menses
• D. A client who has felt quickening for the first time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeling quickening typically occurs around 18-20 weeks of gestation, indicating fetal movement. This is an appropriate time to auscultate the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because a molar pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy, and auscultating the fetal heart rate in this case is not applicable. Choice B is incorrect because a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is too early for fetal heart rate auscultation. Choice C is incorrect because a positive urine pregnancy test alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for fetal heart rate auscultation.

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