Nursing Elites

1. What determines a child’s sex?

• A. Presence of teratogens at the time of conception.
• B. Sex chromosome received from the mother.
• C. Presence of teratogens at the time of ovulation.
• D. Sex chromosome received from the father.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the sex chromosome received from the father. The father contributes either an X or Y chromosome, which determines the child's sex. This occurs at the moment of fertilization when the sperm carrying either an X (resulting in a female) or Y (resulting in a male) chromosome fertilizes the egg. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the presence of teratogens at the time of conception or ovulation does not determine the child's sex. While the sex chromosome received from the mother is important, it is the father's contribution that ultimately determines the child's sex.

2. The healthcare provider is planning care for a client at 30 weeks gestation who is experiencing preterm labor. Which medication is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory distress syndrome?

• A. Ampicillin 1 gram IV push every 8 hours
• B. Betamethasone 12 mg deep IM
• C. Terbutaline 0.25 mg subcutaneously every 15 minutes for 3 doses
• D. Butorphanol tartrate 1 mg IV push every 2 hours as needed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Betamethasone is a corticosteroid given to stimulate fetal lung maturity and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin (Choice A) is an antibiotic and does not prevent respiratory distress syndrome. Terbutaline (Choice C) is a tocolytic used to inhibit contractions and does not directly prevent respiratory distress syndrome. Butorphanol tartrate (Choice D) is an opioid analgesic and does not have a role in preventing respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants.

3. A 25-year-old gravida 3, para 2 client gave birth to a 9-pound, 7-ounce boy 4 hours ago after augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin). She presses her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating 'I’m bleeding a lot.' What is the most likely cause of postpartum hemorrhage in this client?

• A. Retained placental fragments.
• B. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations.
• C. Uterine atony.
• D. Puerperal infection.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Uterine atony is the most likely cause of bleeding 4 hours after delivery, especially after delivering a macrosomic infant and augmenting labor with oxytocin. Uterine atony is characterized by the inability of the uterine muscles to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding. The other options, such as retained placental fragments (A), unrepaired vaginal lacerations (B), and puerperal infection (D), are less likely causes of postpartum hemorrhage in this scenario. Retained placental fragments can cause bleeding, but this typically presents earlier than 4 hours postpartum. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations would likely be evident sooner and not typically result in significant bleeding. Puerperal infection is not a common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage unless there are other signs of infection present.

4. According to a study conducted in 2013 by Fellman, what affects the chances of having twins?

• A. Increase when a woman conceives at a younger age.
• B. Increase with parental age.
• C. Decrease with the frequency of intercourse before conception.
• D. Decrease with the use of fertility drugs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. According to the study by Fellman in 2013, the chances of having twins actually increase with parental age. Choice A is incorrect as the study does not specify a younger age for conceiving to increase the chances of twins. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency of intercourse before conception is not a highlighted factor in the study. Choice D is also incorrect as the study does not discuss the impact of fertility drugs on the likelihood of having twins.

5. Following a traumatic delivery, an infant receives an initial Apgar score of 3. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Page the pediatrician STAT
• B. Continue resuscitative efforts
• C. Repeat the Apgar assessment in 5 minutes
• D. Inform the parents of the infant's condition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where an infant receives a low Apgar score of 3 following a traumatic delivery, the most crucial intervention for the nurse to implement is to continue resuscitative efforts. A low Apgar score indicates that the newborn is in distress and requires immediate medical attention to support breathing, heart rate, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. Continuing resuscitative efforts is essential to provide life-saving interventions promptly. Paging the pediatrician may cause a delay in crucial interventions, repeating the Apgar assessment in 5 minutes is not appropriate as immediate action is needed to stabilize the infant, and informing parents should not take precedence over providing immediate medical care to the newborn.

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