Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a preterm newborn who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following finding should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Minimal arm recoil
• B. Popliteal angle of less than 90°
• C. Creases over the entire sole
• D. Sparse lanugo

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a preterm newborn at 32 weeks of gestation, healthcare providers should expect minimal arm recoil. This finding is common in preterm infants due to lower muscle tone. Choice B, a popliteal angle of less than 90°, is incorrect for this age group. Creases over the entire sole (Choice C) typically develop at term age, not at 32 weeks of gestation. Sparse lanugo (Choice D) is a normal finding in preterm infants but is not specific to those at 32 weeks of gestation.

2. A pregnant client mentions in her history that she changes the cat's litter box daily. Which test should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider to prescribe?

• A. Biophysical profile
• B. Fern test
• C. Amniocentesis
• D. TORCH screening

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, TORCH screening. TORCH screening is done to detect infections such as toxoplasmosis, which can be contracted from handling cat litter and is harmful during pregnancy. Biophysical profile (choice A) is a prenatal ultrasound evaluation. Fern test (choice B) is used to assess for amniotic fluid leakage. Amniocentesis (choice C) involves taking a sample of amniotic fluid to test for genetic abnormalities and certain infections, not specifically related to toxoplasmosis from cat litter.

3. Following an amniocentesis, a nurse is caring for a client. The nurse should observe the client for which of the following complications?

• A. Hyperemesis
• B. Proteinuria
• C. Hypoxia
• D. Hemorrhage

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After an amniocentesis, the nurse should monitor the client for potential complications, with hemorrhage being a significant concern due to the invasive nature of the procedure. Hyperemesis (severe vomiting), proteinuria (excessive protein in the urine), and hypoxia (low oxygen levels) are not typically associated with amniocentesis and are less likely to occur compared to hemorrhage, which is a more common complication that requires prompt recognition and intervention.

4. Jill bears the genetic code for Von Willebrand disease, but she has never developed the illness herself. Jill would be considered:

• A. a carrier of the recessive gene that causes the disease.
• B. susceptible to the disease after adolescence.
• C. an acceptor of the recessive gene that causes the disease.
• D. susceptible to the disease in late adulthood.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Jill is a carrier of the recessive gene for Von Willebrand disease. Being a carrier means that she has one copy of the gene but does not show symptoms of the disease. Carriers can pass on the gene to their offspring. Choice B is incorrect as being a carrier does not mean she is susceptible to developing the disease after adolescence. Choice C is incorrect as 'acceptor' is not a term used in genetics in this context. Choice D is incorrect as susceptibility to the disease is not related to late adulthood in carriers of a recessive gene.

5. Monozygotic (MZ) twins are known as fraternal twins.

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C. Possibly
• D. Never

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'FALSE.' Monozygotic (MZ) twins are identical twins, not fraternal. Fraternal twins are dizygotic (DZ). The statement in the question is incorrect as MZ twins are genetically identical, while fraternal twins actually refer to dizygotic twins who develop from two separate fertilized eggs. Therefore, monozygotic twins are not known as fraternal twins, making option B the correct choice. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the relationship between monozygotic and fraternal twins.

Similar Questions