HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?
- A. Sebaceous and sweat glands
- B. Melanin and keratin
- C. Sensory receptors and hair follicles
- D. Adipose cells and blood vessels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.
2. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being discharged with a prescription for epoetin alfa (Epogen). What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.
- C. Expect to feel better immediately.
- D. Avoid foods high in potassium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your blood pressure regularly.' Epoetin alfa (Epogen) can lead to hypertension as a side effect, so it is essential for clients with CKD to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Choice A is incorrect because epoetin alfa does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because the client should not expect immediate improvement upon starting the medication. Choice D is incorrect because while monitoring potassium intake is important in CKD, the question specifically pertains to epoetin alfa and its side effects, not potassium intake.
3. What is the most important aspect of colostomy care to teach the client?
- A. Change the colostomy bag only when necessary
- B. Eat a low-residue diet
- C. Assess the stoma for color and swelling
- D. Irrigate the colostomy only if advised by a healthcare provider
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most important aspect of colostomy care to teach the client is to assess the stoma for color and swelling. This is crucial as it ensures early detection of complications such as ischemia or infection. Changing the colostomy bag only when necessary is more appropriate than doing it daily, as it prevents unnecessary changes that may irritate the skin. While eating a low-residue diet is beneficial, it is not the most crucial aspect to teach. Irrigating the colostomy should only be done if advised by a healthcare provider, as it is not a routine procedure for all clients with a colostomy.
4. A client with foul-smelling drainage from an incision on the upper left arm is admitted with a suspected methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which nursing interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Send wound drainage for culture and sensitivity.
- B. Institute contact precautions for staff and visitors.
- C. Use standard precautions and wear a mask.
- D. Monitor the client's white blood cell count.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When dealing with a client suspected of having MRSA, the nurse should implement contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection. This includes using gowns and gloves, along with following proper hand hygiene practices. Sending wound drainage for culture and sensitivity may be necessary for diagnostic purposes, but it is not directly related to preventing the spread of infection in this case. Using standard precautions and wearing a mask are not sufficient when dealing with MRSA; contact precautions are specifically required to prevent transmission. Monitoring the client's white blood cell count is important in assessing infection status but is not a primary intervention to prevent the spread of MRSA.
5. The nurse observes a client with new-onset tachycardia. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Check for the client's temperature
- B. Administer prescribed beta-blockers
- C. Assess for any chest pain or discomfort
- D. Monitor the client's blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client presents with new-onset tachycardia, the first action the nurse should take is to assess for any associated symptoms like chest pain or discomfort. This is important to differentiate the potential causes of tachycardia and guide appropriate interventions. Checking the client's temperature (Choice A) may be relevant in certain situations but is not the priority when tachycardia is observed. Administering prescribed beta-blockers (Choice B) should only be done after a comprehensive assessment and healthcare provider's orders. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (Choice D) is important, but assessing for chest pain or discomfort takes precedence in this scenario to rule out cardiac causes of tachycardia.
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