HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain
1. The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for surgery in the morning. The client reports drinking a glass of water at midnight. What should the nurse do?
- A. Notify the anesthesiologist
- B. Document the intake in the medical record
- C. Cancel the surgery
- D. Instruct the client to fast until the surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the anesthesiologist. When a client reports drinking water close to the time of surgery, it is important to inform the anesthesiologist as it can impact the administration of anesthesia. The anesthesiologist needs this information to make decisions regarding anesthesia administration. Documenting the intake in the medical record is important for documentation purposes, but the immediate action needed is to inform the anesthesiologist. Canceling the surgery is not necessary based solely on the intake of water; the anesthesiologist will determine the appropriate course of action. Instructing the client to fast until the surgery may not be appropriate without consulting the anesthesiologist first, as the situation needs to be assessed by the anesthesia team.
2. Based on the documentation in the medical record, which action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Administer the rubella vaccine subcutaneously
- B. Observe the mother breastfeeding her infant
- C. Call the nursery for the infant's blood type result
- D. Administer Vicodin one tablet for pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the mother breastfeeding her infant. This action is essential to ensure that the infant is feeding well and to assess maternal-infant bonding. Administering the rubella vaccine subcutaneously (Option A) is not the immediate priority in this scenario as assessing breastfeeding is more crucial. Calling the nursery for the infant's blood type result (Option C) is premature and not the next appropriate step, as it does not address the immediate needs of the newborn. Administering Vicodin one tablet for pain (Option D) is not indicated without further assessment or indication of pain, making it an incorrect choice at this time.
3. The nurse is planning to ambulate a client who has been on bed rest for 24 hours following a Colon Resection. To ambulate this client safely, which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place non-skid shoes on the client
- B. Show the client how to use the call light
- C. Use a gait belt to support the client
- D. Assist the client to a bedside sitting position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To ambulate a client safely after a period of bed rest, the nurse should first assist the client to a bedside sitting position. This initial step ensures the client is stable before attempting to stand and walk, reducing the risk of falls and allowing for a gradual adjustment to activity post-bed rest. Placing non-skid shoes, showing how to use the call light, or using a gait belt are important but should come after ensuring the client is safely seated and stable.
4. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer a high-flow oxygen mask.
- B. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position.
- C. Provide a high-carbohydrate diet.
- D. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client with COPD experiencing shortness of breath is to position the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion and breathing by reducing respiratory effort. Administering a high-flow oxygen mask (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the priority intervention. Providing a high-carbohydrate diet (Choice C) is not directly related to managing acute shortness of breath in COPD. Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice D) is helpful for airway clearance but is not the priority intervention when the client is in distress with acute shortness of breath.
5. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Neutralizes stomach acid
- B. Reduces gastric acid production
- C. Forms a protective barrier over ulcers
- D. Increases gastric mucus production
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduces gastric acid production. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing gastric acid production, thereby helping to heal ulcers. While neutralizing stomach acid is associated with antacids, forming a protective barrier over ulcers is more characteristic of medications like sucralfate. The action described in choice D, increasing gastric mucus production, is not the primary mechanism of action of omeprazole in treating peptic ulcer disease.
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