the nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with chronic heart failure which dietary recommendation is most appropriate
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 1 Final Exam

1. The healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client with chronic heart failure. Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary recommendation for a client with chronic heart failure is to follow a low-sodium diet. This helps manage the condition by reducing fluid retention and the workload on the heart. High fluid intake can lead to fluid overload and exacerbate heart failure symptoms. While protein is important for overall health, a high-protein diet is not specifically indicated for chronic heart failure. Increasing sodium intake is contraindicated in heart failure as it can worsen fluid retention and increase the workload on the heart.

2. The client is being taught about managing chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which dietary restriction should be emphasized the most?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restricting protein intake is vital in managing chronic kidney disease (CKD) as it helps decrease the kidneys' workload and slows down disease progression. High-fiber foods are generally beneficial for health and should not be limited in CKD management. Dairy products can be consumed moderately unless contraindicated. While adequate fluid intake is crucial, increasing intake excessively may not be suitable for all CKD patients, especially those with fluid restrictions. Therefore, the most crucial dietary restriction to emphasize in CKD management is restricting protein intake.

3. A new mother is at the clinic with her 4-week-old for a well-baby check-up. The nurse should tell the mother to anticipate that the infant will demonstrate which milestone by 2 months of age?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because social smiling is a developmental milestone typically expected around 2 months of age. At this stage, infants start to engage more with their caregivers and show positive emotional responses. The other choices are incorrect. Choice A describes a motor skill that usually emerges later. Choice C involves more coordination and exploration, which is not typically seen by 2 months. Choice D relates to head control and arm strength, which also develop progressively but may not be fully achieved by 2 months.

4. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). What is the primary action of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduces gastric acid production. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing gastric acid production, thereby helping to heal ulcers. While neutralizing stomach acid is associated with antacids, forming a protective barrier over ulcers is more characteristic of medications like sucralfate. The action described in choice D, increasing gastric mucus production, is not the primary mechanism of action of omeprazole in treating peptic ulcer disease.

5. A client is receiving dexamethasone (Decadron). What symptoms should the nurse recognize as Cushingoid side effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cushingoid side effects are characteristic of excess corticosteroid use, such as dexamethasone. These include moon face (rounding of the face), slow wound healing, muscle wasting, and sodium and water retention. Options B, C, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with Cushingoid side effects. Tachycardia, hypertension, weight loss, heat intolerance, nervousness, restlessness, tremor (Option B) are not typical of Cushingoid effects, while bradycardia, weight gain, cold intolerance, myxedema facies, and periorbital edema (Option C) are more indicative of hypothyroidism. Hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, dehydration, and hypotension (Option D) are not classical features of Cushingoid side effects.

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