HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. The healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client with chronic heart failure. Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?
- A. Increase fluid intake.
- B. Follow a low-sodium diet.
- C. Follow a high-protein diet.
- D. Increase sodium intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate dietary recommendation for a client with chronic heart failure is to follow a low-sodium diet. This helps manage the condition by reducing fluid retention and the workload on the heart. High fluid intake can lead to fluid overload and exacerbate heart failure symptoms. While protein is important for overall health, a high-protein diet is not specifically indicated for chronic heart failure. Increasing sodium intake is contraindicated in heart failure as it can worsen fluid retention and increase the workload on the heart.
2. During a tonic-clonic seizure, what is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Insert an oral airway
- B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
- C. Restrain the client's arms and legs
- D. Protect the client's head from injury
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse's priority intervention is to protect the client's head from injury. This is crucial to prevent trauma, as head injuries can be severe during a seizure. Inserting an oral airway may cause injury or obstruction during the seizure and is not recommended. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula can be done after ensuring the client's safety. Restraining the client's arms and legs is also not recommended as it can lead to further injury or harm.
3. Prior to administering morphine sulfate (Morphine), the nurse takes the client's vital signs. Based on which finding should the nurse withhold administration of the medication until the charge nurse is notified?
- A. Temperature of 100.8°F
- B. A pulse rate of 150 beats per minute
- C. A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
- D. A blood pressure of 180/110
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a low respiratory rate is a critical concern when administering opioids like morphine, as they can suppress breathing. A high pulse rate (choice B) and high blood pressure (choice D) are not immediate contraindications for administering morphine. A slightly elevated temperature (choice A) may not necessarily require withholding morphine.
4. After placing a client at 26-weeks gestation in the lithotomy position, the client complains of dizziness and becomes pale and diaphoretic. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Instruct the client to take deep breaths.
- B. Place a wedge under the client's hip.
- C. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position.
- D. Remove the client's legs from the stirrups.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Placing a wedge under the client's hip is the correct action in this scenario. This helps relieve the pressure on the vena cava, which can become compressed in the lithotomy position during pregnancy, improving circulation and reducing symptoms like dizziness and pallor. Instructing the client to take deep breaths (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position (Choice C) would worsen the situation by further compressing the vena cava. Removing the client's legs from the stirrups (Choice D) may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of the issue.
5. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depression. After 2 weeks of antidepressant medication therapy, the nurse notices the client has more energy, is giving her belongings away to her visitors, and is in an overall better mood. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Tell the client to keep her belongings because she will need them at discharge
- B. Ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself
- C. Reassure the client that the antidepressant drugs are apparently effective
- D. Support the client by telling her what wonderful progress she is making
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself. Sudden mood improvements and behavioral changes, like giving away belongings, can be concerning signs of possible suicidal ideation. Assessing for suicidal thoughts is crucial to ensure the client's safety. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential risk of harm or assess for suicidal ideation. Choice C is incorrect because simply reassuring the client about the effectiveness of antidepressants does not address the immediate concern of suicidal ideation. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on praising progress without addressing the potential risk of harm the client may pose to herself.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access