Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Persistent cough
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). Which laboratory value is most important to monitor?

• A. Phenytoin level
• B. Sodium level
• C. Hemoglobin level
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring the phenytoin level is crucial to ensure it is within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Monitoring sodium level is important in clients receiving lithium, not phenytoin. Hemoglobin level and white blood cell count are not directly related to phenytoin therapy monitoring.

3. A client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Increases joint lubrication
• B. Reduces inflammation by suppressing the immune system
• C. Enhances bone density
• D. Stimulates cartilage regeneration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Methotrexate is an immunosuppressant that works by suppressing the immune system, thereby reducing inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis. Methotrexate does not directly increase joint lubrication (Choice A) as its primary action is on the immune system. Choices C and D are incorrect since methotrexate does not enhance bone density or stimulate cartilage regeneration. It is crucial for healthcare providers to understand the mechanism of action of medications to provide safe and effective care to patients.

4. The nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several days. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with a high glucose content, the risk of hypoglycemia is significant due to sudden increases in insulin release in response to the glucose load. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia such as shakiness, sweating, palpitations, and confusion. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is not typically a complication of TPN as the high glucose content is more likely to cause hypoglycemia. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are electrolyte imbalances that can occur in clients receiving TPN, but hypoglycemia is the more common and immediate concern that the nurse should monitor for.

5. The nurse notes that a postoperative client's wound site is red and slightly swollen. What is the most appropriate action?

• A. Apply an ice pack
• B. Document the findings and monitor
• C. Notify the surgeon
• D. Clean the wound with sterile saline

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the surgeon. Redness and swelling at a wound site can indicate an infection, which may require medical intervention. Applying an ice pack (choice A) is not appropriate without further assessment. While documenting the findings and monitoring (choice B) is important, it should be accompanied by notifying the surgeon for further evaluation. Cleaning the wound with sterile saline (choice D) may not be sufficient if an infection is present, so immediate communication with the surgeon is crucial.

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