a client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain

1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

2. A client is prescribed metformin for the management of type 2 diabetes. What is the primary action of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreases hepatic glucose production. Metformin primarily works by reducing the production of glucose in the liver (hepatic glucose production) and by improving insulin sensitivity in various tissues. Choice A is incorrect as metformin does not stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas. Choice B is incorrect as metformin increases insulin sensitivity in various tissues, not just muscle cells. Choice D is incorrect as metformin does not delay glucose absorption from the intestines.

3. Which nursing activity is within the scope of practice for the practical nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Observe a client rotate the subcutaneous site for an insulin pump.' This activity is within the scope of practice for a practical nurse as it involves observing and ensuring proper technique for using an insulin pump, which aligns with their training and responsibilities. Choices A, B, and D are beyond the typical scope of practice for a practical nurse. Completing an admission assessment for a newborn nursery is usually performed by a registered nurse. Discontinuing a dislodged central venous catheter and monitoring a narcotic epidural require advanced skills and knowledge, usually carried out by registered nurses or advanced practice nurses.

4. A client with a diagnosis of anemia is being discharged with a prescription for ferrous sulfate. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Expect stools to be dark in color.' Dark stools are a common side effect of iron supplementation due to the unabsorbed iron, and this is not a cause for concern. Choice A is incorrect because taking iron with milk can decrease its absorption due to calcium binding. Choice C is incorrect as there are no specific recommendations to take ferrous sulfate before bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as vitamin C actually enhances iron absorption and should not be avoided.

5. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.

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