a client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain

1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

2. A hospitalized toddler who is recovering from a sickle cell crisis holds a toy and says, 'Mine.' According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, this child's behavior is a demonstration of which developmental stage?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The toddler's behavior of asserting possession ('Mine') reflects a desire for independence, aligning with Erikson's stage of Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt. This stage, typical for toddlers aged 1-3 years, focuses on developing a sense of control and independence. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Industry vs. Inferiority relates to middle childhood, Initiative vs. Guilt pertains to preschoolers, and Trust vs. Mistrust is associated with infancy.

3. When teaching a client about managing hypertension, what dietary advice should be emphasized?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When managing hypertension, it is crucial to adopt comprehensive dietary changes. This includes reducing sodium intake to help lower blood pressure, increasing potassium intake to counteract the effects of sodium and help regulate blood pressure, and limiting alcohol consumption as excessive alcohol can raise blood pressure. Therefore, emphasizing all the options provided (A, B, and C) is essential in effectively managing hypertension and reducing overall cardiovascular risk. Choices A, B, and C are not individually sufficient as a single dietary modification but collectively work together to support blood pressure management.

4. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client refused to bathe for the third consecutive day. What action is best for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ask the client why the bath was refused. Understanding the client's reasons for refusal can guide appropriate interventions, respecting client autonomy while addressing any underlying issues. Choice B is not the best course of action as involving family members may not address the client's specific concerns. Choice C, while important, may not directly address the immediate refusal to bathe. Choice D does not address the underlying reasons for the refusal and may not lead to a resolution.

5. A client is receiving morphine for pain management. What is the most important assessment for the nurse to perform?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can lead to respiratory depression, which makes it crucial for the nurse to monitor the client's breathing closely. Assessing the respiratory rate helps in early detection of potential respiratory depression and allows prompt intervention. While assessing pain level (choice B) is important, monitoring the respiratory status takes precedence due to the risk of respiratory depression with morphine. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is relevant but not as crucial as assessing respiratory status in a client receiving morphine. Evaluating the level of consciousness (choice D) is also important but does not directly address the immediate risk associated with morphine administration.

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