a client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain

1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory finding is most indicative of this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive urine ketones. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the body breaks down fat for energy due to a lack of insulin, leading to ketone production. Positive urine ketones are a hallmark laboratory finding in DKA as they directly reflect the presence of ketosis. Choice A, serum glucose of 180 mg/dL, may be elevated in DKA, but it is not specific to this condition. Choice B, blood pH of 7.30, often shows acidosis in DKA, but urine ketones are more specific to the presence of ketosis. Choice D, serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L, would typically be low in DKA due to acidosis rather than elevated.

3. The client is diagnosed with pneumonia. Which intervention is most effective in promoting airway clearance?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is the most effective intervention in promoting airway clearance for a client with pneumonia. Increasing fluid intake helps to thin respiratory secretions, making it easier for the client to clear the airways. Administering bronchodilators may help with bronchospasm but does not directly promote airway clearance. Chest physiotherapy may be beneficial but is not the first-line intervention for promoting airway clearance in pneumonia. Providing humidified oxygen can improve oxygenation but does not directly address airway clearance.

4. A client is being treated for heart failure. What should the nurse monitor to evaluate treatment effectiveness?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring daily weight, electrolyte levels, and urine output is crucial in evaluating treatment effectiveness for heart failure. Daily weight monitoring helps assess fluid retention or loss, changes in electrolyte levels can indicate imbalances affecting heart function, and urine output monitoring provides insights into kidney function and fluid balance. Therefore, all options are essential components in assessing the patient's fluid status and response to treatment, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as they only represent partial aspects of monitoring heart failure treatment effectiveness.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with hyperkalemia. Which finding is consistent with this electrolyte imbalance?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common finding in clients with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to muscle weakness due to the effect of high potassium levels on muscle function. Decreased deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia; instead, hyperreflexia or increased reflexes may be observed. Constipation (Choice C) is not a common symptom of hyperkalemia. Hypotension (Choice D) is also not a typical finding in hyperkalemia; instead, hypertension or normal blood pressure may be present.

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