a client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain

1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, prolonged PT/INR. In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This indicates impaired liver function, leading to a higher risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT (choice A) are indicators of liver damage but do not directly assess the risk of bleeding. Decreased albumin level (choice B) reflects impaired liver function but is not as directly related to bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR. Elevated bilirubin level (choice C) is a sign of liver dysfunction, specifically related to bile metabolism, and while important, it is not as directly associated with bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR in the context of chronic liver disease.

3. While caring for a client who is being mechanically ventilated, the nurse responds to a high-pressure alarm on the ventilator. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A restless client biting the endotracheal tube can increase airway resistance, triggering the high-pressure alarm and indicating a need for immediate intervention. This behavior can lead to complications such as dislodgement of the tube or airway obstruction. Endotracheal cuff pressure greater than 25 cm H2O, decreased lung compliance, and bilateral crackles with increased secretions are important assessments but do not directly address the urgent need to intervene when a high-pressure alarm is triggered.

4. A client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What is the primary action of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Methotrexate is an immunosuppressant that works by suppressing the immune system, thereby reducing inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis. Methotrexate does not directly increase joint lubrication (Choice A) as its primary action is on the immune system. Choices C and D are incorrect since methotrexate does not enhance bone density or stimulate cartilage regeneration. It is crucial for healthcare providers to understand the mechanism of action of medications to provide safe and effective care to patients.

5. What skin care measure should the nurse implement for a client who underwent external radiation treatment the previous day?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct measure for skin care after external radiation treatment is to cleanse the radiated area with water and pat the skin dry. This gentle cleansing without harsh chemicals or friction helps protect the integrity of radiated skin, preventing irritation or further damage. Choice B is incorrect because massaging radiated skin can cause further irritation, which should be avoided. Choice C is incorrect as rinsing with normal saline and covering with a sterile towel may not be necessary and could potentially introduce infection due to excessive moisture. Choice D is incorrect as using a soft washcloth to remove skin markings can be too abrasive for radiated skin, risking damage and irritation.

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