a client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain

1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

2. When reconstituted, how many milligrams are in each milliliter of solution?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of the cefazolin solution is 400 mg/mL. This calculation is derived by dividing the total milligrams in the vial (1000 mg) by the total volume after reconstitution (2.5 mL). Therefore, each milliliter of the solution contains 400 mg of cefazolin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the information provided.

3. A client is diagnosed with Angina Pectoris. Which factor in the client's history is likely related to the anginal pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily.' Smoking is a major risk factor for angina and other cardiovascular diseases due to its impact on blood vessels. Choice B, 'Drinks two beers daily,' is not directly associated with angina pectoris. While excessive alcohol consumption can contribute to heart problems, it is not a primary risk factor for angina. Choice C, 'Works in a job that requires exposure to the sun,' is not typically related to angina pectoris. Sun exposure is more closely linked to skin-related conditions. Choice D, 'Eats while lying in bed,' is also not a common risk factor for angina. While certain eating habits can impact heart health, this specific behavior is not directly associated with angina pectoris.

4. A client with foul-smelling drainage from an incision on the upper left arm is admitted with a suspected methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which nursing interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When dealing with a client suspected of having MRSA, the nurse should implement contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection. This includes using gowns and gloves, along with following proper hand hygiene practices. Sending wound drainage for culture and sensitivity may be necessary for diagnostic purposes, but it is not directly related to preventing the spread of infection in this case. Using standard precautions and wearing a mask are not sufficient when dealing with MRSA; contact precautions are specifically required to prevent transmission. Monitoring the client's white blood cell count is important in assessing infection status but is not a primary intervention to prevent the spread of MRSA.

5. During a routine prenatal visit, a nurse measures a client’s fundal height. The client is 26 weeks pregnant. What should the fundal height be?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Between 24 to 28 cm. Fundal height corresponds to the weeks of gestation, so at 26 weeks of pregnancy, the fundal height should range between 24 to 28 cm. This measurement is a quick way to assess fetal growth and amniotic fluid volume. Choice A is incorrect because fundal height may vary and not always match the exact weeks of pregnancy. Choice C, measuring above the umbilicus by two finger widths, is not a standard method for fundal height measurement. Choice D, below the xiphoid process, is too high and not relevant for assessing fundal height during pregnancy.

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