Nursing Elites

1. A client has been diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma. The healthcare provider prescribes pilocarpine 1% eye drops. The nurse explains that which action of this drug makes it a useful treatment for the client's condition?

• A. The ciliary muscle contracts, increasing the outflow of aqueous humor in the eye.
• B. Ciliary muscles are paralyzed to decrease accommodation.
• C. Bilateral mydriasis with cycloplegia is accomplished.
• D. The production of aqueous humor in the eyes is decreased.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pilocarpine, a cholinergic agent, stimulates the ciliary muscle to contract, which opens the trabecular meshwork and facilitates the outflow of aqueous humor, reducing intraocular pressure. This mechanism helps in managing open-angle glaucoma by improving drainage and lowering pressure within the eye. Choice A is correct because the contraction of the ciliary muscle increases the outflow of aqueous humor, aiding in the treatment of open-angle glaucoma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the mechanism of action of pilocarpine in treating glaucoma.

2. The healthcare provider notes that a client has a new prescription for 20 mEq of potassium. The IV site is inflamed but not tender, and has a blood flashback. What action should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Obtain a liter of normal saline with 20 mEq of KCl
• B. Contact the healthcare provider to clarify the prescription
• C. Withhold the prescription medication until a new IV is started
• D. Fax the prescription to the pharmacy for immediate dispensing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare provider should contact the prescriber to clarify the prescription because an inflamed IV site may indicate potential issues with administering the medication. It is important to ensure that the prescription is appropriate and safe for the client before proceeding with administration. Option A is incorrect because administering potassium through an inflamed IV site can lead to further complications. Option C is not the best course of action as clarifying the prescription first is essential. Option D is also incorrect as the focus should be on ensuring the safety of the client before dispensing the medication.

3. A client with a diagnosis of depression is prescribed escitalopram. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I should take this medication in the morning with food.
• B. This medication may take 1 to 4 weeks to notice improvement in symptoms.
• C. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
• D. This medication might make me feel drowsy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: It is crucial for clients to understand that they should not discontinue escitalopram abruptly, even if they start feeling better. Stopping the medication suddenly can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a relapse of depression. It is essential to complete the full course of treatment as prescribed by the healthcare provider to ensure the best outcomes and prevent potential complications.

4. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed semaglutide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Pancreatitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Semaglutide, a medication used to treat type 2 diabetes, is known to cause nausea as a potential adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for gastrointestinal symptoms, including nausea, after initiating treatment with semaglutide. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are common concerns in diabetes management, they are not the primary adverse effects associated with semaglutide. Pancreatitis is a serious but rare adverse effect of GLP-1 receptor agonists like semaglutide, which should also be monitored for, but nausea is a more common and immediate concern.

5. When administering medications to a group of clients, which client should the nurse closely monitor for the development of acute kidney injury (AKI)?

• A. Lorazepam
• B. Sucralfate
• C. Digoxin
• D. Vancomycin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, which means it can cause damage to the kidneys. Therefore, clients receiving Vancomycin should be closely monitored for signs and symptoms of acute kidney injury (AKI) to ensure early detection and intervention if necessary. Lorazepam, Sucralfate, and Digoxin do not typically cause acute kidney injury, so they are not the priority for monitoring in this scenario.

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