Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed sotalol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Headache
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Sotalol, a medication used for atrial fibrillation, is known to cause bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choice B, Tachycardia, is incorrect as sotalol is more likely to cause bradycardia. Choice C, Headache, and Choice D, Hyperglycemia, are unrelated side effects of sotalol and are not commonly associated with this medication.

2. What side effect is a male client likely to experience while receiving furosemide 40mg by mouth?

• A. Difficulty starting urination
• B. Nosebleeds
• C. Muscle cramps
• D. Visual disturbances

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle cramps are a common side effect of furosemide due to its impact on electrolyte levels, especially potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, resulting in muscle cramps as one of the manifestations of electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Difficulty starting urination is not a common side effect of furosemide; nosebleeds and visual disturbances are not typically associated with this medication.

3. A practical nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving theophylline. Which symptom indicates that the client may be experiencing theophylline toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tremors
• C. Constipation
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tremors are a common symptom of theophylline toxicity. Other symptoms that may indicate theophylline toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and seizures. Bradycardia, constipation, and hypotension are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client closely for these signs of toxicity and report them promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications.

4. A client with multiple sclerosis starts a new prescription, baclofen, to control muscle spasticity. Three days later, the client calls the clinic nurse and reports feeling fatigued and dizzy. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid hazardous activities until symptoms subside
• B. Contact the healthcare provider immediately
• C. Continue taking the medication every day
• D. Stop taking the medication until the unpleasant side effects wear off

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide is to advise the client to avoid hazardous activities until the symptoms of fatigue and dizziness subside. These side effects can impair the client's ability to engage in activities that require alertness and coordination, posing a risk for accidents. Contacting the healthcare provider immediately may not be necessary unless the symptoms worsen or persist. Continuing to take the medication every day without addressing the side effects can lead to further complications. Stopping the medication abruptly without healthcare provider guidance can also be risky and may not be necessary if the symptoms improve with time.

5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed dabigatran. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Weight gain
• C. Headache
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dabigatran is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in the urine or stool, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or nosebleeds, to ensure early detection and intervention.

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