Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed quetiapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quetiapine is known to cause weight gain as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's weight is crucial to identify any significant changes that may occur due to the medication.

2. A client who takes metformin for diabetes mellitus type 2 is nothing by mouth (NPO) for surgery. What pre-op prescription should the practical nurse (PN) anticipate for this client's glucose management?

• A. NPO except for metformin and regular snacks
• B. NPO except for oral antidiabetic agent
• C. Novolin-N insulin subcutaneously twice daily
• D. Regular insulin subcutaneously per sliding scale

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client taking metformin for diabetes mellitus type 2 is NPO for surgery, it is crucial to manage their glucose levels effectively. The best approach in this situation is to prescribe regular insulin subcutaneously according to a sliding scale based on the client's blood glucose levels. This method allows for precise adjustment of insulin doses to maintain blood glucose within the target range while the client is unable to take oral medications. Choices A and B are incorrect because metformin is typically held when a client is NPO, and oral antidiabetic agents may not provide sufficient glucose control. Choice C is incorrect as Novolin-N insulin given twice daily may not offer the flexibility needed for glucose management in a surgical setting where the client's intake is restricted.

3. A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, resulting in hyperkalemia. This side effect is important to monitor in clients taking spironolactone, especially those with chronic heart failure, as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac complications.

4. A client receiving enalapril reports a persistent dry cough. The nurse should explain that this side effect is related to which medication action?

• A. It reduces the production of angiotensin II.
• B. It increases the production of angiotensin II.
• C. It causes increased production of bradykinin.
• D. It increases the production of aldosterone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to increased levels of bradykinin. The accumulation of bradykinin is responsible for the persistent dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not directly affect the production of angiotensin II or aldosterone. Instead, it primarily impacts the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to bradykinin accumulation.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed lanthanum carbonate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lanthanum carbonate is prescribed in chronic kidney disease to bind dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract. This action can lead to decreased phosphorus absorption and potential hypercalcemia due to the increased serum calcium levels. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia, such as confusion, fatigue, and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lanthanum carbonate's mechanism of action does not lead to hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypokalemia.

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