a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed semaglutide the nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect
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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank

1. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed semaglutide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Semaglutide, a medication used to treat type 2 diabetes, is known to cause nausea as a potential adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for gastrointestinal symptoms, including nausea, after initiating treatment with semaglutide. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are common concerns in diabetes management, they are not the primary adverse effects associated with semaglutide. Pancreatitis is a serious but rare adverse effect of GLP-1 receptor agonists like semaglutide, which should also be monitored for, but nausea is a more common and immediate concern.

2. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed bupropion. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because bupropion is associated with weight loss rather than weight gain. It is important for the client to be aware of this potential side effect. Choice B is correct because bupropion may take several weeks to exhibit its full therapeutic effects. Choice C is also accurate as alcohol consumption should be avoided while taking bupropion due to the risk of seizures. Choice D is correct as taking bupropion in the morning with food can help reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects.

3. In the immediate postoperative period, a client is prescribed morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which finding should the PN consider the highest priority in this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The highest priority for the PN is to assess the rate and depth of the client's respirations when a client is receiving morphine via a PCA pump. Respiratory depression is a life-threatening side effect of intravenous morphine administration. If the client's respiratory rate falls below 10 breaths/min, the PCA pump should be stopped, and the healthcare provider must be notified immediately to prevent further complications. Monitoring the expiration date of the PCA morphine is important but not the highest priority compared to assessing respiratory status. Reviewing the type of anesthesia used during the surgery is not directly related to the immediate management of the client receiving morphine via PCA. Observing signs of disorientation is also important but not as critical as assessing respirations for potential respiratory depression.

4. What is the primary nursing intervention that the practical nurse should perform before administering ampicillin to a client diagnosed with a urinary tract infection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a clean-catch urine specimen. Before administering ampicillin to a client with a urinary tract infection, it is crucial to collect a urine specimen to determine the causative organism and evaluate the effectiveness of pharmacological therapy. Assessing the urine pH for acidity (choice B) is not the primary intervention needed before administering ampicillin. Inserting an indwelling catheter (choice C) is invasive and not necessary unless indicated for specific reasons. Assessing for complaints of dysuria (choice D) is important but does not take precedence over obtaining a urine specimen for proper diagnosis and treatment.

5. A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, resulting in hyperkalemia. This side effect is important to monitor in clients taking spironolactone, especially those with chronic heart failure, as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac complications.

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