HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI Practice
1. A patient with irritable bowel syndrome starts a new prescription for dicyclomine, an anticholinergic medication. The client reports the onset of sensitivity to light and a dry mouth. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Determine if the medication is being taken correctly
- B. Provide instructions on managing these side effects
- C. Schedule an appointment for evaluation by the healthcare provider
- D. Advise stopping the medication until the unpleasant side effects wear off
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is to provide instructions on managing these side effects. Sensitivity to light and dry mouth are common side effects of anticholinergic medications like dicyclomine. It is essential for the nurse to educate the patient on strategies to cope with these side effects, such as staying hydrated to address dry mouth and wearing sunglasses to reduce sensitivity to light. Option A is not the priority as the side effects are expected with this medication and do not necessarily indicate incorrect use. Option C is not immediately necessary as the side effects are common and can be managed without a healthcare provider evaluation. Option D is not recommended unless advised by the healthcare provider as abruptly stopping the medication can lead to worsening symptoms or withdrawal effects.
2. The healthcare provider notes that a client has a new prescription for 20 mEq of potassium. The IV site is inflamed but not tender, and has a blood flashback. What action should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Obtain a liter of normal saline with 20 mEq of KCl
- B. Contact the healthcare provider to clarify the prescription
- C. Withhold the prescription medication until a new IV is started
- D. Fax the prescription to the pharmacy for immediate dispensing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The healthcare provider should contact the prescriber to clarify the prescription because an inflamed IV site may indicate potential issues with administering the medication. It is important to ensure that the prescription is appropriate and safe for the client before proceeding with administration. Option A is incorrect because administering potassium through an inflamed IV site can lead to further complications. Option C is not the best course of action as clarifying the prescription first is essential. Option D is also incorrect as the focus should be on ensuring the safety of the client before dispensing the medication.
3. A client is prescribed atorvastatin. The practical nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Muscle pain and weakness
- B. Headache
- C. Hepatotoxicity
- D. Gastrointestinal bleeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle pain and weakness. Atorvastatin is known to potentially cause muscle pain and weakness, which could indicate muscle damage or rhabdomyolysis. This adverse effect should be closely monitored by the practical nurse to ensure early detection and appropriate management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with atorvastatin use. Headache is a less common side effect, hepatotoxicity is rare but serious, and gastrointestinal bleeding is not a common adverse effect of atorvastatin.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed calcium acetate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed calcium acetate, the nurse must monitor for hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypokalemia. Calcium acetate can increase calcium levels in the blood, leading to hypercalcemia. Symptoms of hypercalcemia include fatigue, confusion, constipation, and muscle weakness. Regular monitoring of calcium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with elevated calcium levels.
5. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer?
- A. Take this medication in the morning before breakfast.
- B. Take this medication with meals.
- C. Avoid taking this medication with antacids.
- D. Take this medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer is to take the medication in the morning before breakfast. This timing helps reduce stomach acid production throughout the day, providing optimal therapeutic effects. Option B is incorrect because taking ranitidine with meals is not the recommended timing. Option C is incorrect as there is no specific contraindication against taking ranitidine with antacids. Option D is incorrect as the medication should not be taken at bedtime but rather in the morning before breakfast.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access