HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lamotrigine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Rash
- B. Tremors
- C. Hair loss
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rash. Lamotrigine can cause a rash, which may indicate a serious adverse effect like Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Monitoring for a rash is crucial in clients taking lamotrigine to promptly address any potential severe reactions.
2. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. The nurse should monitor the client for which adverse effect?
- A. Dizziness upon standing
- B. Weight loss
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypotension. Carvedilol, a beta-blocker, can lead to hypotension by blocking the effects of adrenaline, which can cause blood vessels to dilate and reduce blood pressure. While dizziness upon standing is a potential adverse effect of carvedilol, it is more specifically related to orthostatic hypotension, which is a form of hypotension that occurs when a person stands up from a sitting or lying position. Weight loss and bradycardia are not typically associated with carvedilol use. Therefore, the nurse should primarily monitor for hypotension in a client taking carvedilol.
3. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed exenatide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Nausea
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Pancreatitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Exenatide, a medication commonly used in type 2 diabetes, is known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea. Monitoring for nausea is essential as it can lead to decreased appetite and potential weight loss, affecting the nutritional status of the client. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are important to monitor in diabetes management, they are not typically associated with exenatide use. Pancreatitis is a rare but serious adverse effect of exenatide, which requires immediate medical attention if suspected.
4. A 59-year-old client is prescribed furosemide 40 mg twice a day for the management of heart failure. The practical nurse should monitor the client for the development of which complication?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperchloremia
- C. Hypercalcemia
- D. Hypophosphatemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the kidneys, leading to increased potassium excretion and potentially causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can lead to cardiac irregularities, making it crucial for the practical nurse to monitor the client for this electrolyte imbalance. Choice B, Hyperchloremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choices C and D, Hypercalcemia and Hypophosphatemia, are not common complications of furosemide therapy.
5. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed valproic acid. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Liver toxicity
- B. Kidney stones
- C. Weight gain
- D. Pancreatitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Valproic acid is known to cause liver toxicity as a potential adverse effect. Regular monitoring of liver function tests is crucial to detect any signs of liver damage early on and prevent serious complications. Kidney stones, weight gain, and pancreatitis are not typically associated with valproic acid use, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
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