HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lamotrigine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Rash
- B. Tremors
- C. Hair loss
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rash. Lamotrigine can cause a rash, which may indicate a serious adverse effect like Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Monitoring for a rash is crucial in clients taking lamotrigine to promptly address any potential severe reactions.
2. A client with asthma is prescribed montelukast. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication is used for which purpose?
- A. Immediate relief of acute asthma attacks
- B. Long-term control of asthma symptoms
- C. Treatment of exercise-induced bronchospasm
- D. Immediate relief of allergic rhinitis symptoms
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for the long-term control of asthma symptoms by reducing inflammation in the airways. It is not typically used for immediate relief during acute asthma attacks, where short-acting bronchodilators are more appropriate. Montelukast does not specifically target exercise-induced bronchospasm or allergic rhinitis symptoms. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A is incorrect because montelukast is not for immediate relief of acute asthma attacks. Choice C is incorrect as montelukast is not primarily used to treat exercise-induced bronchospasm. Choice D is incorrect because montelukast is not indicated for immediate relief of allergic rhinitis symptoms.
3. What should be obtained prior to starting olanzapine for a male client with bipolar disorder?
- A. Complete blood count
- B. Family history of hypertension
- C. History of erectile dysfunction
- D. Baseline weight
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Baseline weight should be obtained prior to starting olanzapine in a male client with bipolar disorder to monitor for potential weight gain associated with the medication. Olanzapine is known to cause weight gain and monitoring the baseline weight can help in assessing any changes during treatment.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate, the nurse should monitor for hypercalcemia as a potential side effect. Sevelamer carbonate can bind to dietary calcium and impair its absorption, potentially leading to elevated calcium levels in the blood. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to detect and manage hypercalcemia promptly. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is incorrect because sevelamer carbonate's action is more likely to cause elevated calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are related to potassium levels and are not typically associated with sevelamer carbonate use.
5. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
- B. This medication may cause drowsiness.
- C. This medication might make me feel drowsy.
- D. I should avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients should not stop taking risperidone abruptly once they feel better without consulting their healthcare provider.
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