a client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lamotrigine the nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect
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HESI Practice Test Pharmacology

1. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lamotrigine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rash. Lamotrigine can cause a rash, which may indicate a serious adverse effect like Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Monitoring for a rash is crucial in clients taking lamotrigine to promptly address any potential severe reactions.

2. A client taking long-term steroids also has ranitidine prescribed. The nurse provides which explanation as to why these drugs are given together?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ranitidine is prescribed with long-term steroids to reduce the risk of ulcers associated with steroid therapy. Although steroids can increase the risk of ulcers due to their effect on the gastrointestinal system, ranitidine works by reducing stomach acid production, thus helping to prevent ulcer formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as ranitidine is not given to decrease the risk of infection, reduce blood sugar elevations, or reduce sodium retention associated with steroid usage.

3. A practical nurse is reviewing the medication administration record for a client prescribed prednisone. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can cause side effects such as hypertension, fluid retention, and weight gain. Hypertension is a common side effect of prednisone due to its impact on sodium and fluid retention in the body. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to detect and manage hypertension in clients taking prednisone. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While prednisone can indirectly affect blood glucose levels, hypoglycemia is not a common side effect. Weight gain, not weight loss, is more prevalent with prednisone use. Diarrhea is not a typical side effect associated with prednisone.

4. In a capillary glucose measurement, a client is to receive 10 units of regular insulin and isophane insulin. How should the nurse prepare?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In insulin administration, regular insulin is typically administered before isophane insulin to manage blood glucose effectively. If regular insulin is not available, it is best to withhold the dose until it can be administered as prescribed. Choice A is incorrect as it suggests withdrawing from a specific vial without specifying regular insulin. Choice C is incorrect as obtaining a new vial of regular insulin may not be necessary if it becomes available shortly. Choice D is incorrect as administering 10 units from a mixture of regular and isophane insulin is not the correct approach.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin glargine. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides a consistent level of insulin over 24 hours. Administering it at bedtime helps mimic the body's natural insulin secretion pattern and provides optimal blood glucose control during the night and throughout the day. Choice A (Before meals) is incorrect because insulin glargine is not a rapid-acting insulin meant to cover meals. Choice B (After meals) is incorrect as the timing doesn't align with the insulin's mechanism. Choice D (In the morning) is incorrect as administering insulin glargine in the morning may not provide adequate coverage throughout the night and the following day.

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