HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lamotrigine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Rash
- B. Tremors
- C. Hair loss
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rash. Lamotrigine can cause a rash, which may indicate a serious adverse effect like Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Monitoring for a rash is crucial in clients taking lamotrigine to promptly address any potential severe reactions.
2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding?
- A. Elevated blood pressure
- B. Bruising
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Bruising is a common sign of potential bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Monitoring for bruising is essential as it can indicate a risk of bleeding that needs further assessment and management. Elevated blood pressure, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting are not direct signs of potential bleeding associated with warfarin therapy.
3. How does omeprazole work in treating a peptic ulcer?
- A. Increasing the production of gastric acid
- B. Neutralizing stomach acid
- C. Coating the stomach lining
- D. Reducing gastric acid secretion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing gastric acid secretion. By inhibiting the enzyme responsible for pumping acid into the stomach, omeprazole helps decrease the acidity level in the stomach, providing relief from peptic ulcers. Option A is incorrect because omeprazole does not increase gastric acid production; instead, it decreases it. Option B is incorrect as omeprazole does not neutralize existing stomach acid but rather reduces its secretion. Option C is incorrect as omeprazole does not coat the stomach lining but acts on reducing acid secretion.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed sitagliptin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Pancreatitis
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Sitagliptin, a dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor used in type 2 diabetes, has been associated with rare cases of pancreatitis. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. While hypoglycemia is a potential adverse effect of some diabetes medications, it is less common with sitagliptin. Hyperglycemia is the condition being treated and is not an expected adverse effect of sitagliptin.
5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed sulfasalazine. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take this medication with meals.
- B. Avoid sunlight while taking this medication.
- C. Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider.
- D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the client's teaching plan regarding sulfasalazine is to take the medication with meals. Taking sulfasalazine with food helps to minimize gastrointestinal upset, which is a common side effect of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding sunlight is not specifically related to sulfasalazine. Choice C is important but not directly related to the administration of sulfasalazine. Choice D is incorrect because sulfasalazine should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access