HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lamotrigine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Rash
- B. Tremors
- C. Hair loss
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rash. Lamotrigine can cause a rash, which may indicate a serious adverse effect like Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Monitoring for a rash is crucial in clients taking lamotrigine to promptly address any potential severe reactions.
2. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed atorvastatin. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Liver damage
- B. Kidney damage
- C. Muscle pain
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle pain. Atorvastatin can cause muscle pain, which may indicate rhabdomyolysis, a serious adverse effect. Rhabdomyolysis is a condition where muscle breakdown releases a protein (myoglobin) into the bloodstream, potentially leading to kidney damage. Liver damage (choice A) is a less common side effect of atorvastatin compared to muscle pain. Kidney damage (choice B) is not a direct adverse effect of atorvastatin but can occur indirectly if rhabdomyolysis is severe. Increased appetite (choice D) is not a known adverse effect of atorvastatin.
3. How do you determine if the medication is effective for a client with anemia secondary to chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
- A. Food diary shows increased consumption of iron-rich foods
- B. Reports of increased energy levels and decreased fatigue
- C. Hemoglobin level increased to 12 grams/dL
- D. Takes concurrent iron therapy without adverse effects
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. To assess the effectiveness of medication for anemia in a client with CKD, monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial. Hemoglobin levels directly indicate the response to treatment and improvement in the condition. An increase in hemoglobin level to 12 grams/dL suggests that the medication is effectively addressing the anemia associated with CKD. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased consumption of iron-rich foods, reports of increased energy levels and decreased fatigue, and tolerance to concurrent iron therapy without adverse effects are not direct indicators of the medication's effectiveness in treating anemia secondary to CKD.
4. A female client who started chemotherapy three days ago for cancer of the breast calls the clinic reporting that she is so upset she cannot sleep. The client has several PRN medications available. Which drug should the nurse instruct her to take?
- A. Ondansetron 8mgPO no
- B. Lorazepam 2mg PO bedtime
- C. Oxycodone, acetylsalicylic acid one tablet q4 hours PRN
- D. Acetaminophen, diphenhydramine 2 capsules bedtime
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Acetaminophen and diphenhydramine help with sleep without severe side effects.
5. After receiving the third dose of a new oral anticoagulant prescription, which action should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.
- A. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding
- B. Provide a PRN NSAID for gum discomfort
- C. Review the most recent coagulation lab values
- D. Complete a medication variance report
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Reviewing the most recent coagulation lab values is crucial after receiving multiple doses of a new oral anticoagulant to ensure the patient is within the desired therapeutic range and to prevent adverse events related to over or under-anticoagulation. It is essential to monitor these values closely to adjust the dosage if needed. Notifying the healthcare provider of any concerning findings is important, but it may not be the immediate priority after receiving the third dose. Providing a PRN NSAID for gum discomfort is not typically indicated with oral anticoagulant therapy, as it may increase the risk of bleeding. Completing a medication variance report is more relevant in cases of medication errors or discrepancies, which may not apply in this scenario.
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