HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lamotrigine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Rash
- B. Tremors
- C. Hair loss
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rash. Lamotrigine can cause a rash, which may indicate a serious adverse effect like Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Monitoring for a rash is crucial in clients taking lamotrigine to promptly address any potential severe reactions.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sucroferric oxyhydroxide. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Constipation
- C. Nausea
- D. Hyperphosphatemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Sucroferric oxyhydroxide is known to cause diarrhea as a side effect. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for any signs of diarrhea while on this medication to ensure timely intervention and management.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin glargine. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?
- A. Before meals
- B. After meals
- C. At bedtime
- D. In the morning
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides a consistent level of insulin over 24 hours. Administering it at bedtime helps mimic the body's natural insulin secretion pattern and provides optimal blood glucose control during the night and throughout the day. Choice A (Before meals) is incorrect because insulin glargine is not a rapid-acting insulin meant to cover meals. Choice B (After meals) is incorrect as the timing doesn't align with the insulin's mechanism. Choice D (In the morning) is incorrect as administering insulin glargine in the morning may not provide adequate coverage throughout the night and the following day.
4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed sotalol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Headache
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Sotalol, a medication used for atrial fibrillation, is known to cause bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choice B, Tachycardia, is incorrect as sotalol is more likely to cause bradycardia. Choice C, Headache, and Choice D, Hyperglycemia, are unrelated side effects of sotalol and are not commonly associated with this medication.
5. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed citalopram. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Nausea
- B. Drowsiness
- C. Insomnia
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct potential side effect of citalopram is nausea. Citalopram can cause gastrointestinal disturbances such as nausea, so clients should be advised to take the medication with food if nausea occurs to help minimize this side effect. While other side effects like drowsiness, insomnia, and headache may also occur with citalopram, nausea is a common side effect that clients should be informed about. Drowsiness and insomnia are more commonly associated with other medications used to treat anxiety or depression, such as benzodiazepines or certain antidepressants. Headache is a less common side effect of citalopram compared to nausea.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access