Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which medication instruction should the practical nurse (PN) reinforce to this client?

• A. Maintain consistent sodium intake.
• B. Use sunscreen when outdoors.
• C. Return for monthly urinalysis.
• D. Brush and floss teeth daily.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to reinforce the instruction to brush and floss teeth daily. Phenytoin therapy can lead to gingival hyperplasia (gum disease), which can be prevented by maintaining good oral hygiene practices such as brushing and flossing daily. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are not directly related to the side effects or management of phenytoin therapy. Maintaining consistent sodium intake is not a specific concern with phenytoin. Using sunscreen when outdoors is important to prevent sunburn but is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Returning for monthly urinalysis may be necessary for other medications, but it is not specifically required for monitoring phenytoin therapy.

2. A client with hypertension is prescribed clonidine. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Dizziness
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed clonidine, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as a potential side effect. Clonidine can lead to a decrease in heart rate, thus causing bradycardia. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect.

3. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed fluvoxamine. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Insomnia
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Fluvoxamine is known to cause drowsiness as a potential side effect. Patients should be advised to avoid activities like driving that require alertness until they understand how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, insomnia, and headache are potential side effects of other medications used for anxiety disorders but are not typically associated with fluvoxamine.

4. A client is prescribed clonidine 0.1 mg/24 hours via a transdermal patch. Which client outcome would indicate that the medication is effective?

• A. No complaints of recent episodes of angina
• B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1
• C. No complaints of new onset of nausea or vomiting
• D. Blood pressure changes from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clonidine is an antihypertensive agent that works centrally to reduce blood pressure. A significant decrease in blood pressure, such as changing from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg, indicates that the medication is effectively managing hypertension. Monitoring blood pressure levels is crucial in assessing the response to clonidine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the therapeutic effect of clonidine in managing hypertension, which is the primary goal of the medication in this scenario.

5. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed oxcarbazepine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Agranulocytosis
• C. Liver toxicity
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyponatremia. Oxcarbazepine, an anticonvulsant used in bipolar disorder, can lead to hyponatremia. This is because it can cause the body to retain water, leading to a dilution of sodium levels in the blood. Monitoring sodium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as confusion, seizures, and even coma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Agranulocytosis is not typically associated with oxcarbazepine use. Liver toxicity is a potential adverse effect of some medications but not commonly seen with oxcarbazepine. While weight gain can be a side effect of certain medications used in bipolar disorder treatment, it is not a common adverse effect of oxcarbazepine.

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