the practical nurse administers lactulose to a client which client outcome would indicate a therapeutic response
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HESI LPN

Pharmacology HESI 2023 Quizlet

1. The practical nurse administers lactulose to a client. Which client outcome would indicate a therapeutic response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lactulose is a type of laxative that works by preventing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, leading to increased water absorption in the stool and softening of the stool. The therapeutic response to lactulose is indicated by the passage of two to three soft stools per day, showing that the medication is effectively promoting bowel movements.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glipizide. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed glipizide, a sulfonylurea used to lower blood sugar levels, is to take the medication with meals. Taking it with meals helps to minimize the risk of hypoglycemia by ensuring a more balanced effect on blood glucose levels throughout the day. It is important for the client to follow this instruction to maintain stable blood sugar levels and reduce the likelihood of experiencing low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) episodes. Choice B is incorrect because there are no specific contraindications between glipizide and alcohol. Choice C is incorrect as glipizide should not be taken on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as while it is important to report signs of hypoglycemia, the primary focus should be on preventing hypoglycemia by taking the medication with meals.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer, the nurse should monitor for hypocalcemia. Sevelamer works by binding dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract, which can lead to decreased calcium absorption and potentially cause hypocalcemia.

4. In the immediate postoperative period, a client is prescribed morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which finding should the PN consider the highest priority in this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The highest priority for the PN is to assess the rate and depth of the client's respirations when a client is receiving morphine via a PCA pump. Respiratory depression is a life-threatening side effect of intravenous morphine administration. If the client's respiratory rate falls below 10 breaths/min, the PCA pump should be stopped, and the healthcare provider must be notified immediately to prevent further complications. Monitoring the expiration date of the PCA morphine is important but not the highest priority compared to assessing respiratory status. Reviewing the type of anesthesia used during the surgery is not directly related to the immediate management of the client receiving morphine via PCA. Observing signs of disorientation is also important but not as critical as assessing respirations for potential respiratory depression.

5. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed topiramate. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct. Topiramate is associated with cognitive impairment as an adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's cognitive function while on this medication to assess for any signs of cognitive decline or impairment. Choice B, weight gain, is incorrect as topiramate is actually associated with weight loss rather than weight gain. Choice C, liver toxicity, is also incorrect as topiramate is not known to cause liver toxicity. Choice D, weight loss, is not the correct answer as topiramate is not associated with weight gain.

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