the practical nurse administers lactulose to a client which client outcome would indicate a therapeutic response
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Pharmacology HESI 2023 Quizlet

1. The practical nurse administers lactulose to a client. Which client outcome would indicate a therapeutic response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lactulose is a type of laxative that works by preventing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, leading to increased water absorption in the stool and softening of the stool. The therapeutic response to lactulose is indicated by the passage of two to three soft stools per day, showing that the medication is effectively promoting bowel movements.

2. The healthcare professional is preparing client teaching materials on commonly used medications. Which client is most likely to benefit from a client education package about simvastatin?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Simvastatin is a medication used to lower cholesterol levels and prevent cardiovascular diseases. It is commonly prescribed for individuals at risk of heart-related conditions. Angina is a symptom of underlying heart disease, and individuals with this condition would benefit most from simvastatin to help manage their cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events. Therefore, the 50-year-old male with a history of angina is the most suitable candidate for client education regarding simvastatin. Choices B, C, and D are not the most appropriate candidates for simvastatin education because bone cancer, pregnancy with diabetes, and frequent vaginal infections are not conditions typically treated with simvastatin.

3. A client receiving enalapril reports a persistent dry cough. The nurse should explain that this side effect is related to which medication action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to increased levels of bradykinin. The accumulation of bradykinin is responsible for the persistent dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not directly affect the production of angiotensin II or aldosterone. Instead, it primarily impacts the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to bradykinin accumulation.

4. A client with pulmonary tuberculosis has been taking rifampin for 3 weeks. The client reports orange urine. What should be the nurse's next action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client reports orange urine after taking rifampin is to inform the client that this change is not harmful. Rifampin is known to cause orange discoloration of urine, which is a harmless side effect. There is no need to notify the health care provider as this is an expected outcome. Monitoring creatinine levels or assessing for nephrotoxicity is unnecessary in this situation, as rifampin does not typically cause kidney damage.

5. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed valproate. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. Valproate is known to cause weight gain as a common adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's weight regularly while on this medication to detect and address any changes that may occur.

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