HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed pioglitazone. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Liver toxicity
- C. Kidney stones
- D. Bone fractures
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, liver toxicity. Pioglitazone is known to cause liver toxicity, so it is essential for the nurse to monitor the client's liver function while on this medication. Monitoring liver function tests can help detect any signs of liver damage early, allowing for timely intervention to prevent serious complications.
2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed dulaglutide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Nausea
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Pancreatitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Nausea.' Dulaglutide, a medication commonly used in the management of type 2 diabetes, can lead to gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are potential concerns in diabetes management, they are not typically associated with dulaglutide use. Pancreatitis is a serious adverse effect of some diabetes medications, but it is not a common side effect of dulaglutide.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed ferric citrate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Constipation
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Nausea
- D. Hyperphosphatemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed ferric citrate, the nurse should monitor for constipation as a potential side effect. Ferric citrate can lead to constipation due to its effects on the gastrointestinal system, causing a decrease in bowel movements. It is essential for the nurse to assess and manage constipation promptly to prevent complications and ensure the client's comfort and well-being. Monitoring bowel movements, providing adequate hydration, and recommending dietary interventions can help alleviate constipation in clients taking ferric citrate. Diarrhea, nausea, and hyperphosphatemia are not typically associated with the use of ferric citrate in clients with chronic kidney disease.
4. A client is prescribed an antacid for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease. What is the action of this medication that is effective in treating the client's ulcer?
- A. Decrease in the production of gastric secretions
- B. Production of an adherent barrier over the ulcer
- C. Maintenance of a gastric pH of 3.5 or above
- D. Decrease in the gastric motor activity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Antacids work by neutralizing gastric acids and maintaining a gastric pH of 3.5 or above. This pH level is crucial to prevent the activation of pepsinogen, a precursor to pepsin, which can further damage the ulcer. Choice A is incorrect because antacids do not directly decrease the production of gastric secretions; they neutralize existing acid. Choice B is incorrect as antacids do not form a physical barrier over the ulcer but rather neutralize the acid around it. Choice D is also incorrect as antacids do not affect gastric motor activity but focus on reducing acidity in the stomach.
5. A client who was diagnosed with oral thrush calls the clinic saying the medication bottle broke and all of the medication was spilled. The client is requesting a refill order. The nurse should contact the health care provider about a refill for which medication?
- A. Ampicillin
- B. Ciprofloxacin
- C. Neomycin sulfate
- D. Nystatin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nystatin is the appropriate medication for treating oral thrush as it is an antifungal drug specifically used for fungal infections. It targets the fungus responsible for thrush, Candida, effectively. Therefore, the nurse should contact the healthcare provider to request a refill of Nystatin for the client.
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