HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed pioglitazone. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Liver toxicity
- C. Kidney stones
- D. Bone fractures
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, liver toxicity. Pioglitazone is known to cause liver toxicity, so it is essential for the nurse to monitor the client's liver function while on this medication. Monitoring liver function tests can help detect any signs of liver damage early, allowing for timely intervention to prevent serious complications.
2. A client with pulmonary tuberculosis has been taking rifampin for 3 weeks. The client reports orange urine. What should be the nurse's next action?
- A. Notify the client's health care provider.
- B. Inform the client that this is not harmful.
- C. Assess the client for other signs of nephrotoxicity.
- D. Monitor the client's most recent creatinine level.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client reports orange urine after taking rifampin is to inform the client that this change is not harmful. Rifampin is known to cause orange discoloration of urine, which is a harmless side effect. There is no need to notify the health care provider as this is an expected outcome. Monitoring creatinine levels or assessing for nephrotoxicity is unnecessary in this situation, as rifampin does not typically cause kidney damage.
3. The healthcare provider is discharging a patient with a new prescription for ranitidine (Zantac). Which information would be important to include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Thrombolytic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) may occur
- B. Aspirin should not be taken with this medication
- C. The patient may experience iron deficiency anemia
- D. The patient may experience restlessness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. It is important to include information that ranitidine may cause restlessness as a side effect in some patients. Educating the patient about possible side effects helps in early recognition and management, improving medication adherence and patient safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not pertain to common side effects or specific considerations related to ranitidine use.
4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding?
- A. Elevated blood pressure
- B. Bruising
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Bruising is a common sign of potential bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Monitoring for bruising is essential as it can indicate a risk of bleeding that needs further assessment and management. Elevated blood pressure, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting are not direct signs of potential bleeding associated with warfarin therapy.
5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed adalimumab. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Avoid live vaccines while taking this medication.
- B. Take this medication with food to decrease gastrointestinal upset.
- C. Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider.
- D. Avoid sunlight exposure while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed adalimumab, which is an immunosuppressant medication, is to avoid live vaccines. Adalimumab can weaken the immune system, making live vaccines potentially harmful. It is essential to educate the client on this to prevent complications and ensure the effectiveness of the treatment.
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