a male client receives a scopolamine transdermal patch 2 hours before surgery four hours after surgery the client tells the nurse that he is experienc
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Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023

1. A male client receives a scopolamine transdermal patch 2 hours before surgery. Four hours after surgery, the client tells the nurse that he is experiencing pain and asks why the patch is not working. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Scopolamine is not a pain medication; it is commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting, particularly in surgical settings. It works on the central nervous system to help control these symptoms, not to relieve pain. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to explain to the client that the medication is not intended to relieve pain but rather to manage other specific symptoms. Checking the correct placement of the patch is also important to ensure proper administration, but addressing the misconception about the medication's purpose is the priority in this scenario. Offering to apply a new patch would not address the client's pain as scopolamine is not meant for pain relief. Advising the client that the effects have worn off is inaccurate because the medication is not used for pain management.

2. What should be obtained prior to starting olanzapine for a male client with bipolar disorder?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Baseline weight should be obtained prior to starting olanzapine in a male client with bipolar disorder to monitor for potential weight gain associated with the medication. Olanzapine is known to cause weight gain and monitoring the baseline weight can help in assessing any changes during treatment.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a common side effect. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial because it may lead to non-adherence to the medication. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a potential side effect of potassium-sparing diuretics, not ACE inhibitors like lisinopril. Hypernatremia (choice C) refers to elevated sodium levels and is not a common side effect of lisinopril. Hyponatremia (choice D) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels and is not a typical side effect of lisinopril. Therefore, the nurse should focus on assessing the client for a dry cough when taking lisinopril.

4. A client receiving enalapril reports a persistent dry cough. The nurse should explain that this side effect is related to which medication action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to increased levels of bradykinin. The accumulation of bradykinin is responsible for the persistent dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not directly affect the production of angiotensin II or aldosterone. Instead, it primarily impacts the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to bradykinin accumulation.

5. A client with asthma is prescribed fluticasone. The nurse should instruct the client to use this medication at which time?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fluticasone is a maintenance medication for asthma aimed at controlling symptoms. It should be taken once a day on a regular basis to provide ongoing relief and prevent asthma symptoms, rather than being used to treat acute asthma attacks. Therefore, the correct answer is to use it once a day. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because using fluticasone during an asthma attack, twice a day, or only at night before bed does not align with the medication's purpose of being a daily maintenance therapy.

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