Nursing Elites

1. A practical nurse is reviewing the medication administration record for a client prescribed prednisone. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Weight loss
• C. Hypertension
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can cause side effects such as hypertension, fluid retention, and weight gain. Hypertension is a common side effect of prednisone due to its impact on sodium and fluid retention in the body. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to detect and manage hypertension in clients taking prednisone. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While prednisone can indirectly affect blood glucose levels, hypoglycemia is not a common side effect. Weight gain, not weight loss, is more prevalent with prednisone use. Diarrhea is not a typical side effect associated with prednisone.

2. A client has been diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma. The healthcare provider prescribes pilocarpine 1% eye drops. The nurse explains that which action of this drug makes it a useful treatment for the client's condition?

• A. The ciliary muscle contracts, increasing the outflow of aqueous humor in the eye.
• B. Ciliary muscles are paralyzed to decrease accommodation.
• C. Bilateral mydriasis with cycloplegia is accomplished.
• D. The production of aqueous humor in the eyes is decreased.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pilocarpine, a cholinergic agent, stimulates the ciliary muscle to contract, which opens the trabecular meshwork and facilitates the outflow of aqueous humor, reducing intraocular pressure. This mechanism helps in managing open-angle glaucoma by improving drainage and lowering pressure within the eye. Choice A is correct because the contraction of the ciliary muscle increases the outflow of aqueous humor, aiding in the treatment of open-angle glaucoma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the mechanism of action of pilocarpine in treating glaucoma.

3. During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Explain the importance of obtaining a blood sample promptly to test for medication toxicity
• B. Consult with the healthcare provider regarding the necessity of an opioid analgesic for pain relief
• C. Recommend the client to discontinue the medication until contacting the healthcare provider
• D. Instruct the client on the use of acetaminophen every 4-6 hours as needed for headaches

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics. Discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider is not recommended. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.

4. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed oxcarbazepine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Agranulocytosis
• C. Liver toxicity
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyponatremia. Oxcarbazepine, an anticonvulsant used in bipolar disorder, can lead to hyponatremia. This is because it can cause the body to retain water, leading to a dilution of sodium levels in the blood. Monitoring sodium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as confusion, seizures, and even coma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Agranulocytosis is not typically associated with oxcarbazepine use. Liver toxicity is a potential adverse effect of some medications but not commonly seen with oxcarbazepine. While weight gain can be a side effect of certain medications used in bipolar disorder treatment, it is not a common adverse effect of oxcarbazepine.

5. A practical nurse (PN) is reviewing teaching with the client and/or significant others about the concurrent use of benztropine and olanzapine to manage psychotic behavior. What information should the PN reinforce?

• A. Benztropine will reduce olanzapine's side effect of urinary retention.
• B. Benztropine potentiates the effect of olanzapine.
• C. Benztropine is used to control the side effects of olanzapine.
• D. The combined effect of these drugs will modify psychotic behavior.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because benztropine, an anticholinergic drug, is used to control extrapyramidal symptoms associated with olanzapine use. Choice A is incorrect because benztropine does not directly reduce olanzapine's side effect of urinary retention. Choice B is incorrect as benztropine does not potentiate the effect of olanzapine; its main role is to counteract extrapyramidal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because the primary purpose of using benztropine alongside olanzapine is to manage side effects, not specifically to modify psychotic behavior.

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