HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A practical nurse is reviewing the medication administration record for a client prescribed prednisone. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Weight loss
- C. Hypertension
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can cause side effects such as hypertension, fluid retention, and weight gain. Hypertension is a common side effect of prednisone due to its impact on sodium and fluid retention in the body. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to detect and manage hypertension in clients taking prednisone. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While prednisone can indirectly affect blood glucose levels, hypoglycemia is not a common side effect. Weight gain, not weight loss, is more prevalent with prednisone use. Diarrhea is not a typical side effect associated with prednisone.
2. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed liraglutide. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Administer this medication once a week.
- B. Administer this medication once a month.
- C. Administer this medication twice a day.
- D. Administer this medication once a day.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer liraglutide once a day. Liraglutide is typically prescribed to be taken once daily, as directed by the healthcare provider. This dosing schedule helps maintain consistent levels of the medication in the body to effectively manage blood sugar levels in clients with diabetes mellitus type 2. Option A, administering once a week, is incorrect as it would not provide consistent control of blood sugar levels. Option B, administering once a month, is also incorrect as it is not the recommended dosing frequency for liraglutide. Option C, administering twice a day, is inaccurate as liraglutide is not typically dosed in this manner. It is important for the nurse to emphasize the importance of adherence to the prescribed dosing regimen to achieve optimal therapeutic outcomes.
3. Escitalopram is prescribed for a 16-year-old adolescent client who is clinically depressed. Five days later, the parent tells the practical nurse (PN) that the drug is not working because their child is not feeling any better. Which explanation should the PN provide?
- A. It takes 1 to 4 weeks for antidepressant medications to become effective.
- B. The dosage may need to be increased; I will contact your health care provider.
- C. Depression is difficult to treat with drugs alone. Therapy sessions would enhance their effectiveness.
- D. Based on your child's response to this drug, the health care provider is reviewing your medication regimen.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Antidepressant medications typically require 1 to 4 weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect. It is crucial to educate the family that during the initial week of treatment, the child may experience heightened anxiety. Therefore, it is important to wait for the medication to take its full course before assessing its effectiveness.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Pancreatitis
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin, the nurse should monitor for pancreatitis as a potential adverse effect. Linagliptin has been associated with rare cases of pancreatitis; therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management.
5. When a client with hepatic encephalopathy is receiving lactulose, which parameter is essential to monitor for a response to the drug?
- A. Serum hepatic enzymes
- B. Fingerstick glucose
- C. Stool color and character
- D. Serum electrolytes and ammonia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In hepatic encephalopathy, the goal of lactulose therapy is to reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting its excretion in the stool. Therefore, monitoring serum electrolytes and ammonia levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of lactulose in lowering ammonia levels and improving the client's condition. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because serum hepatic enzymes, fingerstick glucose, and stool color/character are not directly related to monitoring the response to lactulose therapy in hepatic encephalopathy.
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