a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem the nurse should monitor for which potential side effect
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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension by relaxing blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.

2. When a client with hepatic encephalopathy is receiving lactulose, which parameter is essential to monitor for a response to the drug?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hepatic encephalopathy, the goal of lactulose therapy is to reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting its excretion in the stool. Therefore, monitoring serum electrolytes and ammonia levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of lactulose in lowering ammonia levels and improving the client's condition. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because serum hepatic enzymes, fingerstick glucose, and stool color/character are not directly related to monitoring the response to lactulose therapy in hepatic encephalopathy.

3. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed etanercept for rheumatoid arthritis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed etanercept is to rotate injection sites to prevent irritation and ensure proper absorption. Changing sites will help prevent skin irritation and ensure that the medication is absorbed effectively. This practice also reduces the risk of injection site reactions and discomfort. It is essential to follow this instruction to promote optimal medication delivery and minimize adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because etanercept can be taken with or without food, and it is not specifically indicated to be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific association between etanercept and sunlight exposure. Choice D is incorrect because while it is important to notify the healthcare provider of signs of infection, this is not the primary instruction related to the administration of etanercept.

4. A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide, a diuretic, the nurse should be vigilant for potential adverse effects. Furosemide can lead to excessive fluid loss, resulting in dehydration. Dehydration is a significant concern as it can exacerbate heart failure symptoms. Additionally, furosemide can cause electrolyte imbalances, particularly affecting potassium and sodium levels. Monitoring for signs of dehydration and electrolyte disturbances is crucial to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety and well-being. Increased blood glucose levels and weight gain are not commonly associated with furosemide use in heart failure patients, making choices A and D incorrect.

5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed enoxaparin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant that works by preventing blood clots. One of the potential adverse effects of enoxaparin is an increased risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool or urine, to ensure timely intervention and prevent complications.

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