a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem the nurse should monitor for which potential side effect
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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension by relaxing blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.

2. A client with osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed raloxifene, a medication used for osteoporosis, is to take it at the same time each day. This consistency helps maintain steady blood levels of the medication, enhancing its effectiveness in managing the condition. Choice B is incorrect because raloxifene does not require a full glass of water for administration. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene should not be taken on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene should not be taken immediately after a meal.

3. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. When a client is prescribed risperidone, monitoring weight is crucial due to the potential side effect of weight gain associated with this medication. This side effect can be significant as it may lead to other health issues. Choice B, Tremors, is not typically associated with risperidone use. Choice C, Insomnia, is less likely to be a direct side effect of risperidone compared to weight gain. Choice D, Hyperglycemia, is a possible side effect of some antipsychotic medications, but it is not commonly associated with risperidone.

4. A client is prescribed phenobarbital 100 mg daily for the treatment of seizures. Which statement made by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication phenobarbital?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Phenobarbital should be taken at the same time every day to maintain blood levels and enhance compliance. Common side effects of phenobarbital include drowsiness, lethargy, dizziness, and nausea; therefore, it is best to take it before bedtime to minimize these effects and improve sleep quality. Choice B is incorrect because phenobarbital does not affect the color of urine. Choice C is incorrect because there is no need to fast before taking phenobarbital. Choice D is incorrect because taking extra doses without healthcare provider guidance can lead to overdose and adverse effects.

5. The healthcare professional is caring for a patient with a new order for an oral laxative. Which is a contraindication in administering an oral laxative?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering an oral laxative to a patient with abdominal pain of unknown origin is contraindicated because it could be a sign of a more serious underlying condition that needs immediate medical evaluation. Giving a laxative in such a situation without proper diagnosis could potentially worsen the patient's condition or delay appropriate treatment. Choice A (Cardiac problems) is not a contraindication for an oral laxative unless the patient has a specific cardiac condition that interacts with the laxative. Choice C (Several hemorrhoids) and Choice D (Chronic constipation) are not contraindications for administering an oral laxative.

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