HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Headache
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension by relaxing blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.
2. A female client who started chemotherapy three days ago for cancer of the breast calls the clinic reporting that she is so upset she cannot sleep. The client has several PRN medications available. Which drug should the nurse instruct her to take?
- A. Ondansetron 8mgPO no
- B. Lorazepam 2mg PO bedtime
- C. Oxycodone, acetylsalicylic acid one tablet q4 hours PRN
- D. Acetaminophen, diphenhydramine 2 capsules bedtime
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Acetaminophen and diphenhydramine help with sleep without severe side effects.
3. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed semaglutide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Nausea
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Pancreatitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Semaglutide, a medication used to treat type 2 diabetes, is known to cause nausea as a potential adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for gastrointestinal symptoms, including nausea, after initiating treatment with semaglutide. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are common concerns in diabetes management, they are not the primary adverse effects associated with semaglutide. Pancreatitis is a serious but rare adverse effect of GLP-1 receptor agonists like semaglutide, which should also be monitored for, but nausea is a more common and immediate concern.
4. The practical nurse (PN) is obtaining the medical history of a client starting a new prescription for conjugated estrogens PO daily. Which medical condition is not treated by this medication?
- A. Menopausal symptoms
- B. Prostatic cancer
- C. Thromboembolic diseases
- D. Abnormal uterine bleeding
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Conjugated estrogens, such as Premarin, are not used in the treatment of thromboembolic diseases. These medications are contraindicated in conditions predisposing to thromboembolic diseases due to their association with an increased risk of thromboembolism, stroke, pulmonary embolism, and myocardial infarction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because conjugated estrogens are commonly prescribed for managing menopausal symptoms, abnormal uterine bleeding, and certain hormone-responsive cancers, but not for thromboembolic diseases.
5. A client is prescribed an antacid for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease. What is the action of this medication that is effective in treating the client's ulcer?
- A. Decrease in the production of gastric secretions
- B. Production of an adherent barrier over the ulcer
- C. Maintenance of a gastric pH of 3.5 or above
- D. Decrease in the gastric motor activity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Antacids work by neutralizing gastric acids and maintaining a gastric pH of 3.5 or above. This pH level is crucial to prevent the activation of pepsinogen, a precursor to pepsin, which can further damage the ulcer. Choice A is incorrect because antacids do not directly decrease the production of gastric secretions; they neutralize existing acid. Choice B is incorrect as antacids do not form a physical barrier over the ulcer but rather neutralize the acid around it. Choice D is also incorrect as antacids do not affect gastric motor activity but focus on reducing acidity in the stomach.
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