a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem the nurse should monitor for which potential side effect
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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension by relaxing blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.

2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed tofacitinib. What should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tofacitinib is an immunosuppressive medication used in rheumatoid arthritis. Patients taking tofacitinib should avoid live vaccines because the medication can weaken the immune system, making live vaccines potentially harmful. It is essential to educate the client on this to prevent any complications related to live vaccines during their treatment.

3. A client is prescribed amitriptyline for depression. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Increased appetite.' Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is known to commonly cause increased appetite, leading to weight gain. Monitoring for increased appetite is crucial as it can impact the client's overall health and well-being. Choice A, 'Insomnia,' is less likely as amitriptyline is more associated with sedative effects. Choice B, 'Weight loss,' is incorrect as weight gain is a more common side effect. Choice C, 'Dry mouth,' is a potential side effect of amitriptyline, but it is not directly related to increased appetite, which is the primary concern in this case.

4. A client has a prescription for heparin 1,000 units IV STAT. Several pre-filled syringes of low molecular weight heparin are available in the client's medication drawer. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should contact the pharmacy to obtain the correct heparin formulation as the prescription calls for heparin 1,000 units IV STAT. Low molecular weight heparin is not the same as unfractionated heparin, and therefore, the nurse should not administer the available low molecular weight heparin without first obtaining the correct medication. Diluting the available heparin, calculating an equivalent dose, or changing the route of administration would not address the discrepancy between the prescribed heparin and the available low molecular weight heparin.

5. A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. What is the most important action for the PN to take before administering this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's platelet count. Enoxaparin can lead to thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), which can increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, assessing the platelet count before administering enoxaparin is crucial to ensure that it is within a safe range. Assessing the client's blood pressure (Choice A) is not directly related to enoxaparin administration. Monitoring urine output (Choice C) and reviewing blood glucose levels (Choice D) are not essential actions before administering enoxaparin.

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