a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem the nurse should monitor for which potential side effect
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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension by relaxing blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.

2. In a capillary glucose measurement, a client is to receive 10 units of regular insulin and isophane insulin. How should the nurse prepare?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In insulin administration, regular insulin is typically administered before isophane insulin to manage blood glucose effectively. If regular insulin is not available, it is best to withhold the dose until it can be administered as prescribed. Choice A is incorrect as it suggests withdrawing from a specific vial without specifying regular insulin. Choice C is incorrect as obtaining a new vial of regular insulin may not be necessary if it becomes available shortly. Choice D is incorrect as administering 10 units from a mixture of regular and isophane insulin is not the correct approach.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed valsartan. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker that can cause hypotension as a side effect by dilating blood vessels. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to prevent complications related to low blood pressure. Choice B, Tachycardia, is incorrect because valsartan typically does not cause an increase in heart rate. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not a common side effect of valsartan. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is also unlikely with valsartan use.

4. A client who is newly diagnosed with erosive esophagitis secondary to GERD experiences symptoms after taking lansoprazole PO for one full week. Which actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to advise the client that healing from erosive esophagitis typically takes several weeks. Providing this information helps manage the client's expectations and anxiety about treatment effectiveness. It is not necessary to confirm medication timing, assess bowel sounds, or measure the apical pulse at this point. Since symptoms persist after one week of lansoprazole, it may not be appropriate to immediately escalate to a higher dose without further assessment or guidance from the healthcare provider. Auscultating bowel sounds and assessing the apical pulse are not relevant to the client's symptoms related to erosive esophagitis and GERD.

5. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed sertraline. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), is known to commonly cause gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea. It is recommended for clients to take sertraline with food to help minimize this potential side effect. Choice B, Drowsiness, is less commonly associated with sertraline use. Insomnia, choice C, is not a typical side effect of sertraline; in fact, it may help improve sleep in some individuals. Headache, choice D, is also not a common side effect of sertraline.

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