HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Headache
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension by relaxing blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.
2. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed valproate. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Hair loss
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. Valproate is known to cause weight gain as a common adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's weight regularly while on this medication to detect and address any changes that may occur.
3. A client who is recovering from an appendectomy is receiving narcotics. Earlier, the nurse witnessed the client's family pushing the pain pump. What should the nurse implement?
- A. Check the client's level of consciousness
- B. Instruct the family not to push the button
- C. Stop the client's basal infusion
- D. Administer a narcotic reversal medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Instructing the family not to push the button is necessary to prevent the client from receiving an excessive amount of narcotics, ensuring the safe and appropriate use of the pain pump. Checking the client's level of consciousness may not address the issue of family members pushing the button. Stopping the client's basal infusion is not indicated unless there are specific medical reasons for doing so. Administering a narcotic reversal medication is not necessary at this point as the issue lies with inappropriate use rather than an overdose.
4. The practical nurse administered 15 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously to a client before they consumed their breakfast at 7:30 AM. At what time is the client at an increased risk for a hypoglycemic reaction?
- A. 8:30 to 11:30 AM
- B. 3:30 to 7:30 PM
- C. 9:30 PM to midnight
- D. 1:00 to 5:00 AM
Correct answer: B
Rationale: NPH insulin, an intermediate-acting type, peaks approximately 8 to 12 hours after subcutaneous administration. Considering this, the client is most likely to experience a hypoglycemic reaction between 3:30 and 7:30 PM, making option B the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they fall outside the peak time for a hypoglycemic reaction after administering NPH insulin.
5. A client is receiving heparin to treat a deep vein thrombosis. The nurse should monitor which laboratory result to assist in evaluating the efficacy of the drug?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Prothrombin time
- C. Partial thromboplastin time
- D. Serum levels of protamine sulfate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the partial thromboplastin time to evaluate the efficacy of heparin. Partial thromboplastin time reflects the anticoagulant effect of heparin by measuring the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. Platelet count assesses platelet levels and is not specific to heparin efficacy. Prothrombin time is used to monitor warfarin therapy. Serum levels of protamine sulfate are not used to evaluate the efficacy of heparin.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access