Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Headache
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension by relaxing blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer, the nurse should monitor for hypocalcemia. Sevelamer works by binding dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract, which can lead to decreased calcium absorption and potentially cause hypocalcemia.

3. Prior to administering an oral dose of methylprednisolone, what is most important for the nurse to do?

• A. Administer the medication with a glass of milk
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding
• C. Begin tapering the drug dose per protocol
• D. Teach the clients about foods high in calcium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering methylprednisolone with food or milk is important as it can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects associated with the medication. This practice is commonly recommended to minimize stomach upset and irritation that may occur when taking methylprednisolone on an empty stomach. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to provide the medication with a glass of milk to enhance patient comfort and adherence to the treatment regimen. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication in the question stem that suggests a need to notify the healthcare provider before administering the medication with food or milk. Choice C is incorrect because tapering the drug dose per protocol is not the immediate action needed prior to administering the first dose of methylprednisolone. Choice D is irrelevant to the administration of methylprednisolone and not the most important action to take before giving the medication.

4. A client with a history of angina is prescribed amlodipine. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor the client for which adverse effect?

• A. Headache
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, commonly causes peripheral edema as an adverse effect. This is due to its vasodilation effects on blood vessels, leading to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial to assess the client's response to amlodipine and ensure timely intervention if needed.

5. When educating a client about the adverse effects of conjunctivitis, what is a serious condition that requires prompt attention?

• A. Contact lens irritation
• B. Decreased sex drive
• C. Brown spots on the skin
• D. Epigastric pain unrelieved by antacids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Epigastric pain unrelieved by antacids is a concerning symptom that may indicate a more serious underlying condition such as a perforated ulcer. This symptom requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications.

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