a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem the nurse should monitor for which potential side effect
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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension by relaxing blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.

2. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Agranulocytosis. Clozapine is known to potentially cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and hypersalivation are not typically associated with clozapine use. While dry mouth can be a common side effect of some antipsychotic medications, it is not specifically linked to clozapine. Weight gain can occur with certain antipsychotics, but clozapine is more commonly associated with metabolic side effects. Hypersalivation is not a common side effect of clozapine.

3. When a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed fondaparinux, the nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fondaparinux is an anticoagulant prescribed to prevent blood clots. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for an increased risk of bleeding, which is a potential adverse effect of this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fondaparinux does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as unexplained bruising, bleeding gums, or blood in the urine or stool, is crucial when a client is on fondaparinux.

4. A client has sublingual nitroglycerine tablets prescribed to treat angina. The nurse realizes the client requires further education if the client makes which statements? (Select one that doesn't apply.)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Nitroglycerine sublingual tablets need to be replaced every 3 to 5 months, not every year, making statement A incorrect. While nitroglycerine can cause a headache, it is important to continue taking the prescribed nitroglycerine if the client has angina, making statement B accurate. Nitroglycerine tablets do not cause addiction, so statement C is correct. Dizziness and weakness are associated with the hypotensive effect of nitroglycerine; therefore, if the client feels dizzy when taking them, they should sit down or lie down until they feel better. Taking nitroglycerine tablets before an activity known to cause angina can help prevent angina attacks.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed calcium acetate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed calcium acetate, the nurse must monitor for hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypokalemia. Calcium acetate can increase calcium levels in the blood, leading to hypercalcemia. Symptoms of hypercalcemia include fatigue, confusion, constipation, and muscle weakness. Regular monitoring of calcium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with elevated calcium levels.

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