a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem the nurse should monitor for which potential side effect
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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension by relaxing blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.

2. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed atenolol, a beta-blocker medication used to treat hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as a potential side effect. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, and one common adverse effect is bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because atenolol typically does not cause tachycardia, hypotension, or hyperglycemia as primary side effects. Instead, bradycardia is a common concern due to the drug's mechanism of action in reducing heart rate.

3. The client is receiving vancomycin, and the nurse plans to draw blood for a peak and trough to determine... the best timing for these levels?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To accurately determine peak and trough levels of vancomycin, blood should be drawn two hours after the completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next dose. This timing allows for appropriate assessment of the drug levels in the body, ensuring accurate monitoring of therapeutic and toxic concentrations. Choice A is incorrect as drawing blood midway through administration does not provide an accurate peak level. Choice C is incorrect as drawing blood one hour before the next dose does not represent the trough level. Choice D is incorrect because drawing blood immediately after completion of the IV dose does not allow enough time for the drug to reach peak levels.

4. A client undergoing hemodialysis for chronic kidney disease is taking the medication erythropoietin. The nurse should reinforce instructions to explain for which reason this medication is prescribed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythropoietin is prescribed to stimulate the production of red blood cells. Clients undergoing hemodialysis often develop anemia due to end-stage renal disease. Erythropoietin helps correct this anemia by stimulating red blood cell production. It is not used to prevent infections associated with dialysis, prevent deep vein thrombosis, or balance phosphorus levels in the body.

5. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed infliximab. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. Infliximab is known to increase the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs of infection in the client receiving infliximab to promptly address any potential complications and ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bone marrow suppression, hair loss, and pancreatitis are not typically associated with infliximab therapy. While these adverse effects can occur with other medications, the primary concern with infliximab is the increased risk of infection.

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