Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Headache
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension by relaxing blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.

2. A client undergoing hemodialysis for chronic kidney disease is taking the medication erythropoietin. The nurse should reinforce instructions to explain for which reason this medication is prescribed?

• A. This drug prevents infections associated with dialysis.
• B. This drug prevents deep vein thrombosis in older clients.
• C. This drug helps stimulate the production of red blood cells.
• D. This drug helps balance the level of phosphorus in the body.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythropoietin is prescribed to stimulate the production of red blood cells. Clients undergoing hemodialysis often develop anemia due to end-stage renal disease. Erythropoietin helps correct this anemia by stimulating red blood cell production. It is not used to prevent infections associated with dialysis, prevent deep vein thrombosis, or balance phosphorus levels in the body.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium. The nurse should assess the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Cough
• D. Palpitations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth. Ipratropium can cause dry mouth as a common side effect due to its anticholinergic effects. Anticholinergic medications like ipratropium can lead to decreased salivary flow, resulting in dry mouth. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because nausea, cough, and palpitations are not commonly associated with ipratropium use.

4. A client with asthma is prescribed montelukast. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication is used for which purpose?

• A. Immediate relief of acute asthma attacks
• B. Long-term control of asthma symptoms
• C. Treatment of exercise-induced bronchospasm
• D. Immediate relief of allergic rhinitis symptoms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for the long-term control of asthma symptoms by reducing inflammation in the airways. It is not typically used for immediate relief during acute asthma attacks, where short-acting bronchodilators are more appropriate. Montelukast does not specifically target exercise-induced bronchospasm or allergic rhinitis symptoms. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A is incorrect because montelukast is not for immediate relief of acute asthma attacks. Choice C is incorrect as montelukast is not primarily used to treat exercise-induced bronchospasm. Choice D is incorrect because montelukast is not indicated for immediate relief of allergic rhinitis symptoms.

5. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer?

• A. Take this medication in the morning before breakfast.
• B. Take this medication with meals.
• C. Avoid taking this medication with antacids.
• D. Take this medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer is to take the medication in the morning before breakfast. This timing helps reduce stomach acid production throughout the day, providing optimal therapeutic effects. Option B is incorrect because taking ranitidine with meals is not the recommended timing. Option C is incorrect as there is no specific contraindication against taking ranitidine with antacids. Option D is incorrect as the medication should not be taken at bedtime but rather in the morning before breakfast.

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