Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed atorvastatin. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Liver damage
• B. Kidney damage
• C. Muscle pain
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle pain. Atorvastatin can cause muscle pain, which may indicate rhabdomyolysis, a serious adverse effect. Rhabdomyolysis is a condition where muscle breakdown releases a protein (myoglobin) into the bloodstream, potentially leading to kidney damage. Liver damage (choice A) is a less common side effect of atorvastatin compared to muscle pain. Kidney damage (choice B) is not a direct adverse effect of atorvastatin but can occur indirectly if rhabdomyolysis is severe. Increased appetite (choice D) is not a known adverse effect of atorvastatin.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin lispro. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?

• A. 5-10 minutes before meals
• B. 15 minutes after meals
• C. 30 minutes before meals
• D. 1 hour after meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered 5-10 minutes before meals. This timing helps synchronize the peak action of insulin with the rise in blood glucose levels after eating, effectively managing postprandial hyperglycemia. Choice B, administering 15 minutes after meals, is incorrect because rapid-acting insulins like lispro are meant to act quickly to cover the rise in blood glucose levels after meals. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not align with the rapid onset of action required to manage postprandial hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes mellitus type 1.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed metoprolol. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that works by slowing the heart rate and reducing blood pressure. One of the potential side effects of metoprolol is bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial as it can be an adverse effect of this medication.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed enoxaparin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant that works by preventing blood clots. One of the potential adverse effects of enoxaparin is an increased risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool or urine, to ensure timely intervention and prevent complications.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Headache
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension by relaxing blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.

Similar Questions