HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 2023
1. A client is prescribed phenytoin for the management of seizures. What instruction should the practical nurse provide to the client regarding this medication?
- A. Take the medication at the same time every day.
- B. Discontinue the medication if a rash develops.
- C. Avoid consuming dairy products.
- D. Monitor blood pressure regularly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction the practical nurse should provide to the client regarding phenytoin is to take the medication at the same time every day. This consistency helps maintain a steady level of the medication in the bloodstream, which is crucial for effectively managing seizures. It is important for clients to adhere to their prescribed dosing schedule to optimize the therapeutic benefits of phenytoin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because discontinuing the medication without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous, there is no specific interaction between phenytoin and dairy products, and monitoring blood pressure is not a primary concern with phenytoin therapy for seizures.
2. Prior to administration of the initial dose of the GI agent misoprostol, which information should the nurse obtain from the client?
- A. Taking an anti-emetic medication
- B. History of glaucoma
- C. Currently pregnant
- D. Allergy to aspirin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. It is crucial for the nurse to obtain information regarding the client's pregnancy status before administering misoprostol, as this medication is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential to cause uterine contractions. This can lead to serious complications such as miscarriage or premature birth. Therefore, assessing whether the client is currently pregnant is essential to ensure the safe administration of misoprostol. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the administration of misoprostol. While knowing if the client is taking an anti-emetic medication may be relevant to prevent drug interactions, a history of glaucoma and allergy to aspirin are not primary concerns before administering misoprostol.
3. A client is prescribed clonidine 0.1 mg/24 hours via a transdermal patch. Which client outcome would indicate that the medication is effective?
- A. No complaints of recent episodes of angina
- B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1
- C. No complaints of new onset of nausea or vomiting
- D. Blood pressure changes from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clonidine is an antihypertensive agent that works centrally to reduce blood pressure. A significant decrease in blood pressure, such as changing from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg, indicates that the medication is effectively managing hypertension. Monitoring blood pressure levels is crucial in assessing the response to clonidine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the therapeutic effect of clonidine in managing hypertension, which is the primary goal of the medication in this scenario.
4. The nurse is studying antacids that contain magnesium and calcium for the pharmacology exam. The student nurse remembers that these antacids should be used with caution in patients with which condition?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Renal failure
- C. Heart failure
- D. Peptic ulcer disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Magnesium and calcium can accumulate in patients with renal failure, leading to toxicity.
5. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed atenolol, a beta-blocker medication used to treat hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as a potential side effect. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, and one common adverse effect is bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because atenolol typically does not cause tachycardia, hypotension, or hyperglycemia as primary side effects. Instead, bradycardia is a common concern due to the drug's mechanism of action in reducing heart rate.
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