a client is prescribed phenytoin for the management of seizures what instruction should the practical nurse pn provide to the client regarding this me
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Pharmacology HESI 2023

1. A client is prescribed phenytoin for the management of seizures. What instruction should the practical nurse provide to the client regarding this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the practical nurse should provide to the client regarding phenytoin is to take the medication at the same time every day. This consistency helps maintain a steady level of the medication in the bloodstream, which is crucial for effectively managing seizures. It is important for clients to adhere to their prescribed dosing schedule to optimize the therapeutic benefits of phenytoin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because discontinuing the medication without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous, there is no specific interaction between phenytoin and dairy products, and monitoring blood pressure is not a primary concern with phenytoin therapy for seizures.

2. While a client is receiving the medication haloperidol, which client data would indicate to the practical nurse that the medication is therapeutic?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is taking haloperidol, a therapeutic response involves a decrease in symptoms such as paranoia, hallucinations, delusions, and emotional excitement. These improvements indicate that the medication is effectively managing the client's condition. Monitoring for a reduction in paranoid behaviors helps the practical nurse assess the medication's effectiveness in addressing the client's psychiatric symptoms.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed atenolol, a beta-blocker, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia, which is a potential side effect. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, so monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage bradycardia promptly.

4. A client receiving enalapril reports a persistent dry cough. The nurse should explain that this side effect is related to which medication action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to increased levels of bradykinin. The accumulation of bradykinin is responsible for the persistent dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not directly affect the production of angiotensin II or aldosterone. Instead, it primarily impacts the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to bradykinin accumulation.

5. After receiving the third dose of a new oral anticoagulant prescription, which action should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reviewing the most recent coagulation lab values is crucial after receiving multiple doses of a new oral anticoagulant to ensure the patient is within the desired therapeutic range and to prevent adverse events related to over or under-anticoagulation. It is essential to monitor these values closely to adjust the dosage if needed. Notifying the healthcare provider of any concerning findings is important, but it may not be the immediate priority after receiving the third dose. Providing a PRN NSAID for gum discomfort is not typically indicated with oral anticoagulant therapy, as it may increase the risk of bleeding. Completing a medication variance report is more relevant in cases of medication errors or discrepancies, which may not apply in this scenario.

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