Nursing Elites

1. A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) has been taking riluzole for two weeks. The nurse notes that the client remains weak with observable muscle atrophy. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Explain that the medication may take time to show improvement in symptoms
• B. Withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider
• C. Advise the client to undergo liver function tests
• D. Document the assessment findings in the electronic health record

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's priority is to document the assessment findings in the electronic health record. This action is crucial for maintaining an accurate record of the client's health status and can provide valuable information for the healthcare team. While it is important to monitor the client's response to riluzole, explaining that the medication may take time to show improvement (Choice A) would be more appropriate if the client was expecting immediate results. Withholding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice B) should not be the initial action without further assessment or guidance. Advising the client to undergo liver function tests (Choice C) is not directly related to the current situation of weakness and muscle atrophy.

2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. The nurse should monitor for which common side effect of this medication?

• A. Liver toxicity
• B. Skin rash
• C. Hair loss
• D. Abdominal pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver toxicity. Methotrexate is known to cause liver toxicity, making regular monitoring of liver function essential. Monitoring liver function tests helps detect any signs of liver damage early, allowing for appropriate interventions to be implemented promptly.

3. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed infliximab. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of infection
• B. Bone marrow suppression
• C. Hair loss
• D. Pancreatitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. Infliximab is known to increase the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs of infection in the client receiving infliximab to promptly address any potential complications and ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bone marrow suppression, hair loss, and pancreatitis are not typically associated with infliximab therapy. While these adverse effects can occur with other medications, the primary concern with infliximab is the increased risk of infection.

4. A client with pulmonary tuberculosis has been taking rifampin for 3 weeks. The client reports orange urine. What should be the nurse's next action?

• A. Notify the client's health care provider.
• B. Inform the client that this is not harmful.
• C. Assess the client for other signs of nephrotoxicity.
• D. Monitor the client's most recent creatinine level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client reports orange urine after taking rifampin is to inform the client that this change is not harmful. Rifampin is known to cause orange discoloration of urine, which is a harmless side effect. There is no need to notify the health care provider as this is an expected outcome. Monitoring creatinine levels or assessing for nephrotoxicity is unnecessary in this situation, as rifampin does not typically cause kidney damage.

5. A client who takes metformin for diabetes mellitus type 2 is nothing by mouth (NPO) for surgery. What pre-op prescription should the practical nurse (PN) anticipate for this client's glucose management?

• A. NPO except for metformin and regular snacks
• B. NPO except for oral antidiabetic agent
• C. Novolin-N insulin subcutaneously twice daily
• D. Regular insulin subcutaneously per sliding scale

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client taking metformin for diabetes mellitus type 2 is NPO for surgery, it is crucial to manage their glucose levels effectively. The best approach in this situation is to prescribe regular insulin subcutaneously according to a sliding scale based on the client's blood glucose levels. This method allows for precise adjustment of insulin doses to maintain blood glucose within the target range while the client is unable to take oral medications. Choices A and B are incorrect because metformin is typically held when a client is NPO, and oral antidiabetic agents may not provide sufficient glucose control. Choice C is incorrect as Novolin-N insulin given twice daily may not offer the flexibility needed for glucose management in a surgical setting where the client's intake is restricted.

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