HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) has been taking riluzole for two weeks. The nurse notes that the client remains weak with observable muscle atrophy. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Explain that the medication may take time to show improvement in symptoms
- B. Withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider
- C. Advise the client to undergo liver function tests
- D. Document the assessment findings in the electronic health record
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's priority is to document the assessment findings in the electronic health record. This action is crucial for maintaining an accurate record of the client's health status and can provide valuable information for the healthcare team. While it is important to monitor the client's response to riluzole, explaining that the medication may take time to show improvement (Choice A) would be more appropriate if the client was expecting immediate results. Withholding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice B) should not be the initial action without further assessment or guidance. Advising the client to undergo liver function tests (Choice C) is not directly related to the current situation of weakness and muscle atrophy.
2. How do you determine if the medication is effective for a client with anemia secondary to chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
- A. Food diary shows increased consumption of iron-rich foods
- B. Reports of increased energy levels and decreased fatigue
- C. Hemoglobin level increased to 12 grams/dL
- D. Takes concurrent iron therapy without adverse effects
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. To assess the effectiveness of medication for anemia in a client with CKD, monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial. Hemoglobin levels directly indicate the response to treatment and improvement in the condition. An increase in hemoglobin level to 12 grams/dL suggests that the medication is effectively addressing the anemia associated with CKD. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased consumption of iron-rich foods, reports of increased energy levels and decreased fatigue, and tolerance to concurrent iron therapy without adverse effects are not direct indicators of the medication's effectiveness in treating anemia secondary to CKD.
3. A client with asthma is prescribed montelukast. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication is used for which purpose?
- A. Immediate relief of acute asthma attacks
- B. Long-term control of asthma symptoms
- C. Treatment of exercise-induced bronchospasm
- D. Immediate relief of allergic rhinitis symptoms
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for the long-term control of asthma symptoms by reducing inflammation in the airways. It is not typically used for immediate relief during acute asthma attacks, where short-acting bronchodilators are more appropriate. Montelukast does not specifically target exercise-induced bronchospasm or allergic rhinitis symptoms. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A is incorrect because montelukast is not for immediate relief of acute asthma attacks. Choice C is incorrect as montelukast is not primarily used to treat exercise-induced bronchospasm. Choice D is incorrect because montelukast is not indicated for immediate relief of allergic rhinitis symptoms.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypotension
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Erythropoietin is a medication commonly used to stimulate red blood cell production in individuals with chronic kidney disease. One of the potential adverse effects of erythropoietin therapy is hypertension. The increased production of red blood cells can lead to elevated blood pressure levels. Therefore, monitoring for hypertension is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being while on this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with erythropoietin therapy. Hypertension is the primary adverse effect to monitor in this case.
5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly associated with causing peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it may indicate a need for dosage adjustment or further evaluation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as amlodipine is not known to cause tachycardia, bradycardia, or increased appetite as adverse effects.
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