Nursing Elites

1. The patient is prescribed cimetidine (Tagamet) orally. What should the nurse consider about administering this drug?

• A. Administer the drug with the first bite of food
• B. Administer the drug immediately after meals
• C. Administer the drug 30 minutes after meals
• D. Administer the drug 30 minutes before meals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cimetidine is best absorbed when taken 30 minutes before meals to decrease stomach acid. Administering it before meals allows for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because administering cimetidine with food, immediately after meals, or 30 minutes after meals may not provide the best conditions for absorption. Taking it before meals ensures that the drug is absorbed properly and can exert its intended effects.

2. A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of furosemide to a client. Which laboratory value is most important for the PN to review before administering the medication?

• A. Serum calcium level
• B. Serum potassium level
• C. Serum sodium level
• D. Serum magnesium level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to review the client's serum potassium level before administering furosemide. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia, making it crucial to assess potassium levels to prevent potential complications like cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels.

3. A practical nurse (PN) is reviewing teaching with the client and/or significant others about the concurrent use of benztropine and olanzapine to manage psychotic behavior. What information should the PN reinforce?

• A. Benztropine will reduce olanzapine's side effect of urinary retention.
• B. Benztropine potentiates the effect of olanzapine.
• C. Benztropine is used to control the side effects of olanzapine.
• D. The combined effect of these drugs will modify psychotic behavior.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because benztropine, an anticholinergic drug, is used to control extrapyramidal symptoms associated with olanzapine use. Choice A is incorrect because benztropine does not directly reduce olanzapine's side effect of urinary retention. Choice B is incorrect as benztropine does not potentiate the effect of olanzapine; its main role is to counteract extrapyramidal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because the primary purpose of using benztropine alongside olanzapine is to manage side effects, not specifically to modify psychotic behavior.

4. A client with a diagnosis of depression is prescribed escitalopram. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I should take this medication in the morning with food.
• B. This medication may take 1 to 4 weeks to notice improvement in symptoms.
• C. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
• D. This medication might make me feel drowsy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: It is crucial for clients to understand that they should not discontinue escitalopram abruptly, even if they start feeling better. Stopping the medication suddenly can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a relapse of depression. It is essential to complete the full course of treatment as prescribed by the healthcare provider to ensure the best outcomes and prevent potential complications.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed sotalol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Headache
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Sotalol, a medication used for atrial fibrillation, is known to cause bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choice B, Tachycardia, is incorrect as sotalol is more likely to cause bradycardia. Choice C, Headache, and Choice D, Hyperglycemia, are unrelated side effects of sotalol and are not commonly associated with this medication.

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