Nursing Elites

1. What information should the practical nurse provide to a female client who started taking an oral sulfonamide for a urinary tract infection the previous day and reports slight anorexia, while also experiencing urinary frequency?

• A. Take the medication with an antacid instead of cranberry juice to reduce the anorexia.
• B. Continue to take the medication with a sip of cranberry juice, restricting fluids until the frequency is controlled.
• C. Continue to drink cranberry juice, but take the medicine on an empty stomach with a full glass of water.
• D. Take the medication with a spoonful of ice cream or applesauce and avoid drinking cranberry juice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The practical nurse should advise the client to take sulfonamides with a full glass of water to help prevent crystalluria. It is essential to take the medication on an empty stomach, ideally 1 hour before eating or 2 hours after eating to maximize its absorption and effectiveness. Continuing to drink cranberry juice is beneficial, but it is important to take the medicine separately to enhance its therapeutic action.

2. Phenytoin is prescribed for a client who has a seizure disorder. Which statement by the client needs to be clarified by the healthcare provider?

• A. I should notify the healthcare provider if the color of my urine turns pink.
• B. I should never stop taking this medication abruptly.
• C. I should monitor my glucose levels closely since I am diabetic.
• D. I should take the medicine with antacids if gastric upset occurs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because antacids should not be taken with phenytoin as they can decrease its effects. Taking antacids with phenytoin is not recommended. Choice A is correct; pink discoloration of urine can occur with phenytoin use. Choice B is also correct; abruptly stopping phenytoin can lead to seizures. Choice C is correct; monitoring glucose levels is important as phenytoin can increase glucose levels. Therefore, the statement about using antacids with phenytoin needs clarification.

3. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed dulaglutide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Pancreatitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Nausea.' Dulaglutide, a medication commonly used in the management of type 2 diabetes, can lead to gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are potential concerns in diabetes management, they are not typically associated with dulaglutide use. Pancreatitis is a serious adverse effect of some diabetes medications, but it is not a common side effect of dulaglutide.

4. The healthcare professional is caring for a patient with a new order for an oral laxative. Which is a contraindication in administering an oral laxative?

• A. Cardiac problems
• B. Abdominal pain of unknown origin
• C. Several hemorrhoids
• D. Chronic constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering an oral laxative to a patient with abdominal pain of unknown origin is contraindicated because it could be a sign of a more serious underlying condition that needs immediate medical evaluation. Giving a laxative in such a situation without proper diagnosis could potentially worsen the patient's condition or delay appropriate treatment. Choice A (Cardiac problems) is not a contraindication for an oral laxative unless the patient has a specific cardiac condition that interacts with the laxative. Choice C (Several hemorrhoids) and Choice D (Chronic constipation) are not contraindications for administering an oral laxative.

5. During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Explain the importance of obtaining a blood sample promptly to test for medication toxicity
• B. Consult with the healthcare provider regarding the necessity of an opioid analgesic for pain relief
• C. Recommend the client to discontinue the medication until contacting the healthcare provider
• D. Instruct the client on the use of acetaminophen every 4-6 hours as needed for headaches

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics. Discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider is not recommended. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.

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