Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glipizide. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take this medication with meals.
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Report any signs of hypoglycemia to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed glipizide, a sulfonylurea used to lower blood sugar levels, is to take the medication with meals. Taking it with meals helps to minimize the risk of hypoglycemia by ensuring a more balanced effect on blood glucose levels throughout the day. It is important for the client to follow this instruction to maintain stable blood sugar levels and reduce the likelihood of experiencing low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) episodes. Choice B is incorrect because there are no specific contraindications between glipizide and alcohol. Choice C is incorrect as glipizide should not be taken on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as while it is important to report signs of hypoglycemia, the primary focus should be on preventing hypoglycemia by taking the medication with meals.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed dapagliflozin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Genital infections
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Genital infections. Dapagliflozin, a medication used in diabetes mellitus type 2, is associated with an increased risk of genital infections. Its mechanism of action involves promoting glucose excretion through the urine, creating a favorable environment for microbial growth in the genital area. Monitoring for genital infections is crucial when a client is prescribed dapagliflozin. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of dapagliflozin since it does not directly lower blood glucose levels. Hyperglycemia (choice C) is also unlikely as dapagliflozin is intended to help lower blood glucose levels. Nausea (choice D) is a less common side effect of dapagliflozin compared to genital infections.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is known to cause peripheral edema as a potential adverse effect due to its vasodilatory properties. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema in patients taking amlodipine is crucial to identify and manage this side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because amlodipine is not associated with causing bradycardia, hypertension (as the patient already has hypertension), or increased appetite as adverse effects.

4. In a capillary glucose measurement, a client is to receive 10 units of regular insulin and isophane insulin. How should the nurse prepare?

• A. Withdraw ten units of regular insulin from a vial
• B. Withhold the dose until regular insulin is available
• C. Obtain a new vial of regular insulin and withhold
• D. Pull up 30 units from a vial but only administer 10 units

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In insulin administration, regular insulin is typically administered before isophane insulin to manage blood glucose effectively. If regular insulin is not available, it is best to withhold the dose until it can be administered as prescribed. Choice A is incorrect as it suggests withdrawing from a specific vial without specifying regular insulin. Choice C is incorrect as obtaining a new vial of regular insulin may not be necessary if it becomes available shortly. Choice D is incorrect as administering 10 units from a mixture of regular and isophane insulin is not the correct approach.

5. A client has a prescription for heparin 1,000 units IV STAT. Several pre-filled syringes of low molecular weight heparin are available in the client's medication drawer. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Dilute the available heparin in 250ml of normal saline solution prior to IV administration
• B. Advise the pharmacy on the need to deliver a vial of heparin to the nursing unit immediately
• C. Calculate and administer the equivalent dose of the available low molecular weight heparin
• D. Request a prescription to change the route of administration and use the available heparin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should contact the pharmacy to obtain the correct heparin formulation as the prescription calls for heparin 1,000 units IV STAT. Low molecular weight heparin is not the same as unfractionated heparin, and therefore, the nurse should not administer the available low molecular weight heparin without first obtaining the correct medication. Diluting the available heparin, calculating an equivalent dose, or changing the route of administration would not address the discrepancy between the prescribed heparin and the available low molecular weight heparin.

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