HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glipizide. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take this medication with meals.
- B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Report any signs of hypoglycemia to the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed glipizide, a sulfonylurea used to lower blood sugar levels, is to take the medication with meals. Taking it with meals helps to minimize the risk of hypoglycemia by ensuring a more balanced effect on blood glucose levels throughout the day. It is important for the client to follow this instruction to maintain stable blood sugar levels and reduce the likelihood of experiencing low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) episodes. Choice B is incorrect because there are no specific contraindications between glipizide and alcohol. Choice C is incorrect as glipizide should not be taken on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as while it is important to report signs of hypoglycemia, the primary focus should be on preventing hypoglycemia by taking the medication with meals.
2. A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) has been taking riluzole for two weeks. The nurse notes that the client remains weak with observable muscle atrophy. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Explain that the medication may take time to show improvement in symptoms
- B. Withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider
- C. Advise the client to undergo liver function tests
- D. Document the assessment findings in the electronic health record
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's priority is to document the assessment findings in the electronic health record. This action is crucial for maintaining an accurate record of the client's health status and can provide valuable information for the healthcare team. While it is important to monitor the client's response to riluzole, explaining that the medication may take time to show improvement (Choice A) would be more appropriate if the client was expecting immediate results. Withholding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice B) should not be the initial action without further assessment or guidance. Advising the client to undergo liver function tests (Choice C) is not directly related to the current situation of weakness and muscle atrophy.
3. A client receiving enalapril reports a persistent dry cough. The nurse should explain that this side effect is related to which medication action?
- A. It reduces the production of angiotensin II.
- B. It increases the production of angiotensin II.
- C. It causes increased production of bradykinin.
- D. It increases the production of aldosterone.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to increased levels of bradykinin. The accumulation of bradykinin is responsible for the persistent dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not directly affect the production of angiotensin II or aldosterone. Instead, it primarily impacts the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to bradykinin accumulation.
4. A client has a prescription for heparin 1,000 units IV STAT. Several pre-filled syringes of low molecular weight heparin are available in the client's medication drawer. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Dilute the available heparin in 250ml of normal saline solution prior to IV administration
- B. Advise the pharmacy on the need to deliver a vial of heparin to the nursing unit immediately
- C. Calculate and administer the equivalent dose of the available low molecular weight heparin
- D. Request a prescription to change the route of administration and use the available heparin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should contact the pharmacy to obtain the correct heparin formulation as the prescription calls for heparin 1,000 units IV STAT. Low molecular weight heparin is not the same as unfractionated heparin, and therefore, the nurse should not administer the available low molecular weight heparin without first obtaining the correct medication. Diluting the available heparin, calculating an equivalent dose, or changing the route of administration would not address the discrepancy between the prescribed heparin and the available low molecular weight heparin.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate, the nurse should monitor for hypercalcemia as a potential side effect. Sevelamer carbonate can bind to dietary calcium and impair its absorption, potentially leading to elevated calcium levels in the blood. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to detect and manage hypercalcemia promptly. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is incorrect because sevelamer carbonate's action is more likely to cause elevated calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are related to potassium levels and are not typically associated with sevelamer carbonate use.
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