Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed phenobarbital 100 mg daily for the treatment of seizures. Which statement made by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication phenobarbital?

• A. I will take my medicine at 10 PM before retiring to bed.
• B. The medication will turn the color of my urine to a pink color.
• C. I should not eat or drink anything for at least 2 hours before taking my medicine.
• D. In the event a seizure occurs in the middle of the day, I need to take an extra dose of my medicine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Phenobarbital should be taken at the same time every day to maintain blood levels and enhance compliance. Common side effects of phenobarbital include drowsiness, lethargy, dizziness, and nausea; therefore, it is best to take it before bedtime to minimize these effects and improve sleep quality. Choice B is incorrect because phenobarbital does not affect the color of urine. Choice C is incorrect because there is no need to fast before taking phenobarbital. Choice D is incorrect because taking extra doses without healthcare provider guidance can lead to overdose and adverse effects.

2. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed adalimumab. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of infection
• B. Bone marrow suppression
• C. Hair loss
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. Adalimumab is known to increase the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. Patients on adalimumab should be closely monitored for signs and symptoms of infection, such as fever, chills, and malaise, and should promptly report any such symptoms to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Monitoring for infection is crucial to prevent serious complications in patients receiving adalimumab therapy.

3. The practical nurse administered 15 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously to a client before they consumed their breakfast at 7:30 AM. At what time is the client at an increased risk for a hypoglycemic reaction?

• A. 8:30 to 11:30 AM
• B. 3:30 to 7:30 PM
• C. 9:30 PM to midnight
• D. 1:00 to 5:00 AM

Correct answer: B

Rationale: NPH insulin, an intermediate-acting type, peaks approximately 8 to 12 hours after subcutaneous administration. Considering this, the client is most likely to experience a hypoglycemic reaction between 3:30 and 7:30 PM, making option B the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they fall outside the peak time for a hypoglycemic reaction after administering NPH insulin.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by preventing blood clots. While this is beneficial for individuals with a history of deep vein thrombosis, it also increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for bleeding is crucial to ensure the client's safety and to take appropriate actions if necessary. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because apixaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern when administering apixaban is monitoring for potential bleeding complications.

5. While a client is receiving the medication haloperidol, which client data would indicate to the practical nurse that the medication is therapeutic?

• A. The client has maintained consistent weight loss of 2 pounds per week.
• B. The client has demonstrated a decrease in paranoid behaviors.
• C. The client's blood pressure has remained within normal limits.
• D. The client's fasting blood glucose has remained below 120 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is taking haloperidol, a therapeutic response involves a decrease in symptoms such as paranoia, hallucinations, delusions, and emotional excitement. These improvements indicate that the medication is effectively managing the client's condition. Monitoring for a reduction in paranoid behaviors helps the practical nurse assess the medication's effectiveness in addressing the client's psychiatric symptoms.

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