a client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine the nurse should monitor for which potential side effect
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HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test Pharmacology

1. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine, the nurse should monitor for weight gain as a potential side effect. Olanzapine is known to cause metabolic changes that can lead to weight gain, making it crucial for the nurse to closely monitor the client's weight during treatment. This side effect is significant as it can impact the client's overall health and well-being, so early detection and intervention are essential to manage it effectively.

2. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed citalopram. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential side effect of citalopram is nausea. Citalopram can cause gastrointestinal disturbances such as nausea, so clients should be advised to take the medication with food if nausea occurs to help minimize this side effect. While other side effects like drowsiness, insomnia, and headache may also occur with citalopram, nausea is a common side effect that clients should be informed about. Drowsiness and insomnia are more commonly associated with other medications used to treat anxiety or depression, such as benzodiazepines or certain antidepressants. Headache is a less common side effect of citalopram compared to nausea.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium. The nurse should assess the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth. Ipratropium can cause dry mouth as a common side effect due to its anticholinergic effects. Anticholinergic medications like ipratropium can lead to decreased salivary flow, resulting in dry mouth. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because nausea, cough, and palpitations are not commonly associated with ipratropium use.

4. What class of laxative would the nurse recommend to a patient asking about the best way to prevent constipation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bulk-forming laxatives. These laxatives are recommended to prevent constipation because they work by absorbing liquid in the intestines, forming a bulky, soft stool that is easier to pass. They are safe and considered the most natural option. Stimulant laxatives (choice A) work by promoting bowel movements through intestinal contractions and are more suitable for treating occasional constipation rather than preventing it. Emollient laxatives (choice C) soften the stool by increasing the incorporation of water into the feces and are more suitable for patients who need to avoid straining during defecation. Hyperosmotic laxatives (choice D) work by drawing water into the intestine through osmosis and are typically used for more severe cases of constipation, not for prevention.

5. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer is to take the medication in the morning before breakfast. This timing helps reduce stomach acid production throughout the day, providing optimal therapeutic effects. Option B is incorrect because taking ranitidine with meals is not the recommended timing. Option C is incorrect as there is no specific contraindication against taking ranitidine with antacids. Option D is incorrect as the medication should not be taken at bedtime but rather in the morning before breakfast.

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