Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Insomnia
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine, the nurse should monitor for weight gain as a potential side effect. Olanzapine is known to cause metabolic changes that can lead to weight gain, making it crucial for the nurse to closely monitor the client's weight during treatment. This side effect is significant as it can impact the client's overall health and well-being, so early detection and intervention are essential to manage it effectively.

2. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Weight gain
• C. Headache
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by thinning the blood. One of the potential side effects of warfarin is an increased risk of bleeding. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as unusual bruising, blood in the urine or stool, or prolonged bleeding from cuts or gums. Prompt recognition and management of bleeding are essential to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as weight gain, headache, and dizziness are not common side effects of warfarin. Monitoring for bleeding is a priority due to the anticoagulant properties of warfarin.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sucroferric oxyhydroxide. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Constipation
• C. Nausea
• D. Hyperphosphatemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sucroferric oxyhydroxide is known to cause diarrhea as a side effect. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for any signs of diarrhea while on this medication to ensure timely intervention and management.

4. Escitalopram is prescribed for a 16-year-old adolescent client who is clinically depressed. Five days later, the parent tells the practical nurse (PN) that the drug is not working because their child is not feeling any better. Which explanation should the PN provide?

• A. It takes 1 to 4 weeks for antidepressant medications to become effective.
• B. The dosage may need to be increased; I will contact your health care provider.
• C. Depression is difficult to treat with drugs alone. Therapy sessions would enhance their effectiveness.
• D. Based on your child's response to this drug, the health care provider is reviewing your medication regimen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Antidepressant medications typically require 1 to 4 weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect. It is crucial to educate the family that during the initial week of treatment, the child may experience heightened anxiety. Therefore, it is important to wait for the medication to take its full course before assessing its effectiveness.

5. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed citalopram. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Insomnia
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential side effect of citalopram is nausea. Citalopram can cause gastrointestinal disturbances such as nausea, so clients should be advised to take the medication with food if nausea occurs to help minimize this side effect. While other side effects like drowsiness, insomnia, and headache may also occur with citalopram, nausea is a common side effect that clients should be informed about. Drowsiness and insomnia are more commonly associated with other medications used to treat anxiety or depression, such as benzodiazepines or certain antidepressants. Headache is a less common side effect of citalopram compared to nausea.

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