HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Insomnia
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine, the nurse should monitor for weight gain as a potential side effect. Olanzapine is known to cause metabolic changes that can lead to weight gain, making it crucial for the nurse to closely monitor the client's weight during treatment. This side effect is significant as it can impact the client's overall health and well-being, so early detection and intervention are essential to manage it effectively.
2. How should the healthcare provider schedule the administering of propylthiouracil (PTU)?
- A. Offer both drugs together with a meal
- B. Give parental dose once every 24 hours
- C. Schedule both medications at bedtime
- D. Administer iodine one hour before PTU
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering iodine one hour before PTU is crucial to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness of PTU. This timing helps optimize the therapeutic benefits of PTU by allowing it to be absorbed efficiently without interference from iodine, ultimately leading to better treatment outcomes for the patient. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because offering both drugs together with a meal, giving parental dose once every 24 hours, and scheduling both medications at bedtime do not address the specific timing requirement of administering iodine before PTU for optimal absorption.
3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Headache
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension by relaxing blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.
4. A client with epilepsy is prescribed lamotrigine. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Skin rash
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client is prescribed lamotrigine, the nurse should closely monitor for the potential side effect of skin rash. Lamotrigine is known to cause skin rashes, which can be mild or severe, indicating a serious adverse reaction like Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Monitoring for skin rash is crucial to detect any signs of severe allergic reactions early and prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as drowsiness, nausea and vomiting, and dizziness are not typically associated with lamotrigine use. While dizziness can be a side effect of some antiepileptic medications, it is not a common side effect of lamotrigine.
5. What action should the nurse implement for a female client taking the bisphosphonate medication ibandronate for osteoporosis?
- A. Ask the client to describe how she takes the medication
- B. Reassure the client that the heartburn is temporary
- C. Explain that the use of antacids might be helpful
- D. Encourage the client to increase her calcium intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ensuring correct administration of bisphosphonates, like ibandronate, is essential to maximize effectiveness and minimize potential side effects. By asking the client to describe how she takes the medication, the nurse can assess the client's understanding and adherence to the prescribed regimen, ultimately promoting optimal therapeutic outcomes.
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