HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sucroferric oxyhydroxide. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Constipation
- C. Nausea
- D. Hyperphosphatemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Sucroferric oxyhydroxide is known to cause diarrhea as a side effect. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for any signs of diarrhea while on this medication to ensure timely intervention and management.
2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed amiodarone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Pulmonary toxicity
- B. Liver toxicity
- C. Thyroid dysfunction
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amiodarone is known to cause pulmonary toxicity, which can manifest as respiratory symptoms. Monitoring for signs such as cough, dyspnea, or chest pain is essential to detect this serious side effect early and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while amiodarone can also cause liver toxicity, thyroid dysfunction, and bradycardia, pulmonary toxicity is the most serious side effect that requires immediate attention due to its potential life-threatening consequences.
3. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed citalopram. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Nausea
- B. Drowsiness
- C. Insomnia
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct potential side effect of citalopram is nausea. Citalopram can cause gastrointestinal disturbances such as nausea, so clients should be advised to take the medication with food if nausea occurs to help minimize this side effect. While other side effects like drowsiness, insomnia, and headache may also occur with citalopram, nausea is a common side effect that clients should be informed about. Drowsiness and insomnia are more commonly associated with other medications used to treat anxiety or depression, such as benzodiazepines or certain antidepressants. Headache is a less common side effect of citalopram compared to nausea.
4. A client with hypertension is prescribed valsartan. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker that can cause hypotension as a side effect by dilating blood vessels. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to prevent complications related to low blood pressure. Choice B, Tachycardia, is incorrect because valsartan typically does not cause an increase in heart rate. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not a common side effect of valsartan. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is also unlikely with valsartan use.
5. The practical nurse administers lactulose to a client. Which client outcome would indicate a therapeutic response?
- A. An increase in urine output
- B. Two to three soft stools per day
- C. Absence of nausea
- D. Decreased serum potassium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Lactulose is a type of laxative that works by preventing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, leading to increased water absorption in the stool and softening of the stool. The therapeutic response to lactulose is indicated by the passage of two to three soft stools per day, showing that the medication is effectively promoting bowel movements.
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