Nursing Elites

1. A client taking long-term steroids also has ranitidine prescribed. The nurse provides which explanation as to why these drugs are given together?

• A. Ranitidine reduces the risk of ulcers associated with steroids.
• B. Ranitidine decreases the risk of infection associated with steroids.
• C. Ranitidine decreases blood sugar elevations associated with steroids.
• D. Ranitidine reduces sodium retention associated with steroid usage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ranitidine is prescribed with long-term steroids to reduce the risk of ulcers associated with steroid therapy. Although steroids can increase the risk of ulcers due to their effect on the gastrointestinal system, ranitidine works by reducing stomach acid production, thus helping to prevent ulcer formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as ranitidine is not given to decrease the risk of infection, reduce blood sugar elevations, or reduce sodium retention associated with steroid usage.

2. A client has been taking simvastatin for 3 days and calls the nurse at the clinic to report extreme muscle tenderness and pain. Which is the most appropriate action?

• A. Notify the health care provider.
• B. Review the medication with the client.
• C. Advise the client to avoid grapefruit juice.
• D. Remind the client to limit physical activity until evaluated by the health care provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Extreme muscle tenderness and pain in a client taking simvastatin could indicate rhabdomyolysis, a serious condition. Promptly notifying the health care provider is crucial to evaluate and manage this potential medical emergency. Reviewing the medication with the client may not address the urgency of the situation. Advising the client to avoid grapefruit juice is not directly related to the client's current symptoms. Reminding the client to limit physical activity until evaluated by the health care provider is not appropriate as the client's symptoms should be assessed by a professional first.

3. A client diagnosed with a herniated disc is prescribed hydrocodone/acetaminophen 10 mg/300 mg prn every 4 to 6 hours. As the practical nurse (PN) enters the client's room to administer the requested medication, the client is seen talking and laughing with visiting family. What action should the PN take?

• A. Hold the pain medication until after the visitors leave.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's drug-seeking behavior.
• C. Administer analgesia as requested by the client.
• D. Inform the client that the medication is not needed based on their behavior.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the PN in this situation is to administer the analgesia as requested by the client. Pain management is based on the client's self-report of pain, which is the most reliable indicator of pain intensity. Analgesics should be given promptly when pain occurs and before it worsens. Following the administration of medication, the PN should discuss the situation with the charge nurse for further guidance or assessment.

4. In the emergency department, a child is admitted for accidental ingestion of a poison. The practical nurse (PN) should know that inducing vomiting is recommended for which child?

• A. An 8-month-old who ingested four to six ibuprofen tablets
• B. A 3-year-old who drank an unknown amount of charcoal lighter fluid
• C. A 16-month-old who ingested 2 ounces of acetaminophen elixir
• D. A 2-year-old who ate a handful of automatic dishwasher detergent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inducing emesis is recommended for the child who ingested a large dose of acetaminophen elixir because this medication is hepatotoxic. Acetaminophen overdose can lead to severe liver damage, and prompt removal from the stomach can help reduce absorption and potential harm.

5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by preventing blood clots. While this is beneficial for individuals with a history of deep vein thrombosis, it also increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for bleeding is crucial to ensure the client's safety and to take appropriate actions if necessary. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because apixaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern when administering apixaban is monitoring for potential bleeding complications.

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