a client taking long term steroids also has ranitidine prescribed the nurse provides which explanation as to why these drugs are given together
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Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023

1. A client taking long-term steroids also has ranitidine prescribed. The nurse provides which explanation as to why these drugs are given together?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ranitidine is prescribed with long-term steroids to reduce the risk of ulcers associated with steroid therapy. Although steroids can increase the risk of ulcers due to their effect on the gastrointestinal system, ranitidine works by reducing stomach acid production, thus helping to prevent ulcer formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as ranitidine is not given to decrease the risk of infection, reduce blood sugar elevations, or reduce sodium retention associated with steroid usage.

2. What side effect is a male client likely to experience while receiving furosemide 40mg by mouth?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle cramps are a common side effect of furosemide due to its impact on electrolyte levels, especially potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, resulting in muscle cramps as one of the manifestations of electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Difficulty starting urination is not a common side effect of furosemide; nosebleeds and visual disturbances are not typically associated with this medication.

3. A client with osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed raloxifene, a medication used for osteoporosis, is to take it at the same time each day. This consistency helps maintain steady blood levels of the medication, enhancing its effectiveness in managing the condition. Choice B is incorrect because raloxifene does not require a full glass of water for administration. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene should not be taken on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene should not be taken immediately after a meal.

4. A healthcare professional prepares to administer a scheduled dose of labetalol by mouth to a client with hypertension. The client's heart rate is 48 beats/min, respirations are 16 breaths/min, and blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's low heart rate of 48 beats/min indicates bradycardia, a potential side effect of labetalol. Administering the dose in this case could further lower the heart rate, potentially causing adverse effects. Therefore, it is crucial to withhold the scheduled dose and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment and guidance. Choice A is incorrect because administering the dose without addressing the bradycardia can exacerbate the condition. Choice B is not relevant in this situation as telemetry monitoring is not the priority. Choice C is also not the priority in this case, as the focus should be on the client's bradycardia and the potential adverse effects of administering labetalol.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed amiodarone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amiodarone is known to cause pulmonary toxicity, which can manifest as respiratory symptoms. Monitoring for signs such as cough, dyspnea, or chest pain is essential to detect this serious side effect early and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while amiodarone can also cause liver toxicity, thyroid dysfunction, and bradycardia, pulmonary toxicity is the most serious side effect that requires immediate attention due to its potential life-threatening consequences.

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