Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed valsartan. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker that can cause hypotension as a side effect by dilating blood vessels. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to prevent complications related to low blood pressure. Choice B, Tachycardia, is incorrect because valsartan typically does not cause an increase in heart rate. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not a common side effect of valsartan. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is also unlikely with valsartan use.

2. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lamotrigine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Rash
• B. Tremors
• C. Hair loss
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rash. Lamotrigine can cause a rash, which may indicate a serious adverse effect like Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Monitoring for a rash is crucial in clients taking lamotrigine to promptly address any potential severe reactions.

3. Which assessment finding requires nursing intervention prior to the administration of medication?

• A. Apical pulse heard best at the pulmonic site
• B. Irregular apical pulse rhythm
• C. Presence of a systolic heart murmur
• D. Apical pulse rate of 50 beats/minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An apical pulse rate of 50 beats/minute indicates bradycardia, a heart rate below the normal range, which requires immediate nursing intervention before administering medication to address the potential impact of the bradycardia on the patient's overall condition.

4. How should the healthcare provider schedule the administering of propylthiouracil (PTU)?

• A. Offer both drugs together with a meal
• B. Give parental dose once every 24 hours
• C. Schedule both medications at bedtime
• D. Administer iodine one hour before PTU

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering iodine one hour before PTU is crucial to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness of PTU. This timing helps optimize the therapeutic benefits of PTU by allowing it to be absorbed efficiently without interference from iodine, ultimately leading to better treatment outcomes for the patient. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because offering both drugs together with a meal, giving parental dose once every 24 hours, and scheduling both medications at bedtime do not address the specific timing requirement of administering iodine before PTU for optimal absorption.

5. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed etanercept for rheumatoid arthritis?

• A. Rotate injection sites to prevent irritation.
• B. Take this medication with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
• C. Avoid sunlight exposure while on this medication.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of any signs of infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed etanercept is to rotate injection sites to prevent irritation and ensure proper absorption. Changing sites will help prevent skin irritation and ensure that the medication is absorbed effectively. This practice also reduces the risk of injection site reactions and discomfort. It is essential to follow this instruction to promote optimal medication delivery and minimize adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because etanercept can be taken with or without food, and it is not specifically indicated to be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific association between etanercept and sunlight exposure. Choice D is incorrect because while it is important to notify the healthcare provider of signs of infection, this is not the primary instruction related to the administration of etanercept.

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