a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin the nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding
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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Bruising is a common sign of potential bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Monitoring for bruising is essential as it can indicate a risk of bleeding that needs further assessment and management. Elevated blood pressure, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting are not direct signs of potential bleeding associated with warfarin therapy.

2. After receiving the third dose of a new oral anticoagulant prescription, which action should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reviewing the most recent coagulation lab values is crucial after receiving multiple doses of a new oral anticoagulant to ensure the patient is within the desired therapeutic range and to prevent adverse events related to over or under-anticoagulation. It is essential to monitor these values closely to adjust the dosage if needed. Notifying the healthcare provider of any concerning findings is important, but it may not be the immediate priority after receiving the third dose. Providing a PRN NSAID for gum discomfort is not typically indicated with oral anticoagulant therapy, as it may increase the risk of bleeding. Completing a medication variance report is more relevant in cases of medication errors or discrepancies, which may not apply in this scenario.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed darbepoetin alfa. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Darbepoetin alfa, used to treat anemia in chronic kidney disease, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication stimulates red blood cell production, which can increase blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure regularly is crucial to detect and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, hyperkalemia, and hyperglycemia are not commonly associated with darbepoetin alfa therapy in chronic kidney disease.

4. A client is receiving metronidazole for Clostridium difficile pseudomembranous colitis. Which information should the nurse include in this client's medication teaching plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct information to include in the medication teaching plan for a client receiving metronidazole for Clostridium difficile pseudomembranous colitis is to avoid alcohol consumption. Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol, leading to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, flushing, and headache. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to abstain from alcohol while taking this medication to prevent adverse effects and ensure treatment effectiveness. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking adequate water daily is a general health recommendation but not specific to metronidazole use. Taking with food is not necessary for metronidazole, and in fact, it is recommended to be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Storing the medication in the refrigerator is also incorrect, as metronidazole should be stored at room temperature.

5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What is the most important instruction the practical nurse (PN) should provide to the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: The most important instruction for a client taking methotrexate is to report any signs of infection immediately. Methotrexate can suppress the immune system, making the client more susceptible to infections. Early detection and treatment of infections are crucial to prevent complications. Instructing the client to be vigilant for signs of infection empowers them to take prompt action, enhancing their overall safety and well-being.

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