a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin the nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding
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Nursing Elites

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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Bruising is a common sign of potential bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Monitoring for bruising is essential as it can indicate a risk of bleeding that needs further assessment and management. Elevated blood pressure, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting are not direct signs of potential bleeding associated with warfarin therapy.

2. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed ziprasidone. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: QT prolongation. Ziprasidone is known to cause QT prolongation, which can potentially lead to serious cardiac issues. Monitoring the client's ECG is crucial to detect any changes and prevent adverse effects related to QT interval prolongation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and increased appetite are not commonly associated with ziprasidone. While weight gain can be a side effect of some antipsychotic medications, it is not a prominent side effect of ziprasidone. Dry mouth and increased appetite are also not typically linked to ziprasidone use.

3. During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics. Discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider is not recommended. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.

4. An older adult with iron deficiency anemia is being discharged with iron supplements, which information should the nurse include in the discharge?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to wait 2 hours after meals before taking the iron tablet. This is important to ensure better absorption and efficacy of the iron supplement. Taking the tablet with a daily multivitamin (Choice A) may interfere with iron absorption due to interactions with other minerals. Crushing the tablet and mixing it with pudding (Choice B) can alter the effectiveness of the medication. While bedtime (Choice C) may be convenient, waiting after meals is crucial for optimal iron absorption.

5. A client is receiving heparin to treat a deep vein thrombosis. The nurse should monitor which laboratory result to assist in evaluating the efficacy of the drug?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the partial thromboplastin time to evaluate the efficacy of heparin. Partial thromboplastin time reflects the anticoagulant effect of heparin by measuring the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. Platelet count assesses platelet levels and is not specific to heparin efficacy. Prothrombin time is used to monitor warfarin therapy. Serum levels of protamine sulfate are not used to evaluate the efficacy of heparin.

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