Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Bruising
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Bruising is a common sign of potential bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Monitoring for bruising is essential as it can indicate a risk of bleeding that needs further assessment and management. Elevated blood pressure, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting are not direct signs of potential bleeding associated with warfarin therapy.

2. A client has a prescription for heparin 1,000 units IV STAT. Several pre-filled syringes of low molecular weight heparin are available in the client's medication drawer. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Dilute the available heparin in 250ml of normal saline solution prior to IV administration
• B. Advise the pharmacy on the need to deliver a vial of heparin to the nursing unit immediately
• C. Calculate and administer the equivalent dose of the available low molecular weight heparin
• D. Request a prescription to change the route of administration and use the available heparin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should contact the pharmacy to obtain the correct heparin formulation as the prescription calls for heparin 1,000 units IV STAT. Low molecular weight heparin is not the same as unfractionated heparin, and therefore, the nurse should not administer the available low molecular weight heparin without first obtaining the correct medication. Diluting the available heparin, calculating an equivalent dose, or changing the route of administration would not address the discrepancy between the prescribed heparin and the available low molecular weight heparin.

3. A client whose seizure disorder has been managed with phenytoin is admitted to the emergency department with status epilepticus. Which drug should the practical nurse anticipate being prescribed for administration to treat these seizures?

• A. Phenytoin
• B. Diazepam
• C. Phenobarbital
• D. Carbamazepine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, which is a life-threatening condition of prolonged seizures, rapid intervention is crucial. Diazepam is the drug of choice for treating status epilepticus due to its fast onset of action and effectiveness in stopping seizures. It acts by enhancing the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA to suppress seizure activity quickly. Phenytoin, although used for long-term seizure control, has a slower onset of action and is not the first-line medication for managing status epilepticus.

4. A 67-year-old client is discharged from the hospital with a prescription for digoxin 0.25 mg daily. Which instruction by the practical nurse (PN) is correct?

• A. Take the medication in the morning before getting out of bed.
• B. Do not take the medication if the heartbeat is irregular or slow.
• C. Expect some vision changes due to the medication.
• D. Increase intake of foods rich in potassium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking digoxin is not to take the medication if the heartbeat is irregular or slow. Digoxin can affect the heart rhythm, so it is crucial to monitor the pulse rate. In case of irregular or slow heartbeats, the medication should be withheld, and the healthcare provider should be consulted. This step is necessary to prevent potential complications associated with digoxin therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking digoxin in the morning before getting out of bed is not a specific requirement. Vision changes are not a common side effect of digoxin. While digoxin can affect potassium levels, it is not advised to increase potassium intake without healthcare provider guidance.

5. A 43-year-old female client who has had a thyroidectomy due to Grave's disease is prescribed a thyroid replacement hormone. Which signs and symptoms are associated with thyroid hormone toxicity and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider?

• A. Tinnitus and dizziness
• B. Tachycardia and chest pain
• C. Dry skin and intolerance to cold
• D. Weight gain and increased appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia and chest pain. Signs and symptoms of thyroid hormone toxicity, especially in cases of excessive dosage, include tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and chest pain. These symptoms are consistent with hyperthyroidism, where the body is receiving an excessive amount of thyroid hormone. It is crucial to report these symptoms promptly to the healthcare provider to adjust the medication dosage and prevent potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of thyroid hormone toxicity. Tinnitus and dizziness (Choice A) are not typical symptoms of thyroid hormone toxicity. Dry skin and intolerance to cold (Choice C) are more common in hypothyroidism, while weight gain and increased appetite (Choice D) are associated with hypothyroidism as well, not thyroid hormone toxicity.

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