Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Bruising
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Bruising is a common sign of potential bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Monitoring for bruising is essential as it can indicate a risk of bleeding that needs further assessment and management. Elevated blood pressure, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting are not direct signs of potential bleeding associated with warfarin therapy.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed exenatide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Pancreatitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exenatide, a medication commonly used in type 2 diabetes, is known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea. Monitoring for nausea is essential as it can lead to decreased appetite and potential weight loss, affecting the nutritional status of the client. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are important to monitor in diabetes management, they are not typically associated with exenatide use. Pancreatitis is a rare but serious adverse effect of exenatide, which requires immediate medical attention if suspected.

3. A client undergoing hemodialysis for chronic kidney disease is taking the medication erythropoietin. The nurse should reinforce instructions to explain for which reason this medication is prescribed?

• A. This drug prevents infections associated with dialysis.
• B. This drug prevents deep vein thrombosis in older clients.
• C. This drug helps stimulate the production of red blood cells.
• D. This drug helps balance the level of phosphorus in the body.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythropoietin is prescribed to stimulate the production of red blood cells. Clients undergoing hemodialysis often develop anemia due to end-stage renal disease. Erythropoietin helps correct this anemia by stimulating red blood cell production. It is not used to prevent infections associated with dialysis, prevent deep vein thrombosis, or balance phosphorus levels in the body.

4. A client with severe depression is prescribed sertraline. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
• B. It may take 1 to 4 weeks to notice improvement in symptoms.
• C. I should avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. I should take this medication in the morning with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients should not stop taking sertraline abruptly once they feel better without consulting their healthcare provider. It is important to complete the full course of treatment as prescribed to prevent a relapse of symptoms. Stopping the medication suddenly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and may worsen the condition. Choice B is correct because sertraline may take 1 to 4 weeks to show noticeable improvement in symptoms. Choice C is correct as alcohol should be avoided while taking sertraline due to the increased risk of side effects. Choice D is also correct as taking sertraline in the morning with food can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Pancreatitis
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin, the nurse should monitor for pancreatitis as a potential adverse effect. Linagliptin has been associated with rare cases of pancreatitis; therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management.

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