HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding?
- A. Elevated blood pressure
- B. Bruising
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Bruising is a common sign of potential bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Monitoring for bruising is essential as it can indicate a risk of bleeding that needs further assessment and management. Elevated blood pressure, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting are not direct signs of potential bleeding associated with warfarin therapy.
2. When planning to administer the antiulcer GI agent sucralfate, what instruction should the nurse provide regarding administration?
- A. Administer sucralfate once a day
- B. Assess for secondary candida infection
- C. Monitor electrolyte imbalance
- D. Give sucralfate on an empty stomach
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sucralfate is most effective when taken on an empty stomach. This allows the medication to form a protective layer over the ulcer, promoting healing and symptom relief. Administering sucralfate with or after meals may reduce its efficacy as it may bind to food instead of coating the ulcer site.
3. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Insomnia
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine, the nurse should monitor for weight gain as a potential side effect. Olanzapine is known to cause metabolic changes that can lead to weight gain, making it crucial for the nurse to closely monitor the client's weight during treatment. This side effect is significant as it can impact the client's overall health and well-being, so early detection and intervention are essential to manage it effectively.
4. A client who is obtunded arrives in the emergency center with a suspected drug overdose. Intravenous naloxone is given, but within a short period, the client's level of consciousness deteriorates. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Initiate a second intravenous access site
- B. Prepare to initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
- C. Determine the results of the drug toxicity screen
- D. Administer an additional dose of naloxone
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering an additional dose of naloxone should be the first action taken by the nurse in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. If the client's level of consciousness deteriorates after the initial dose, administering another dose can help further reverse the overdose effects and improve the client's condition. Once the additional naloxone dose is given, the nurse can then proceed to assess the client's response and consider other interventions as needed.
5. A client with a diagnosis of depression is prescribed escitalopram. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I should take this medication in the morning with food.
- B. This medication may take 1 to 4 weeks to notice improvement in symptoms.
- C. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
- D. This medication might make me feel drowsy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: It is crucial for clients to understand that they should not discontinue escitalopram abruptly, even if they start feeling better. Stopping the medication suddenly can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a relapse of depression. It is essential to complete the full course of treatment as prescribed by the healthcare provider to ensure the best outcomes and prevent potential complications.
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